What exactly are they protesting?  Israel defending itself against terrorist attacks?

Again it is absolutely not an opioid it is misclassified. If any of you actually had a history of opioid usage you would know that. I read some articles explaining why the FDA misclassified it at one point but regardless it is misclassified not an opioid.

All opioids do the exact same thing at dosage there is no difference between vicodin, nubain, fentanyly, oxycoton, and Heroin it is all the same at dosage it will all have the exact same effect. Except Tramadol it has absolutely will not have any opioid effect at any dosage because it is not an opioid.

The FDA's big paper on Tramadol -

https://www.fda.gov/media/156139/download -

Page 16 - "Tramadol is a centrally acting atypical opioid that is differentiated from conventional opioids such as morphine or codeine (which is a pro-drug of morphine) by its dual mechanism of analgesia. It combines weak mu opioid agonist activity and non-opioid mode of pain relief and both opioid and non-opioid mechanisms are important contributors to tramadol’s analgesic effect (Raffa 1992, Raffa 1996)."

Page 16 - "The overall analgesic action of tramadol comes from these multiple pharmacological mechanisms of opioid and nonopioid actions that results in ‘synergistic potentiation,’ i.e., the degree of pain relief is greater than the sum of the individual components of its action"

Page 17 - "Tramadol is often the only opioid used in patients with post-operative pain, and its use in combination with non-opioid
medicine provides adequate pain relief while reducing the use of more abusable opioids"

Page 17 - "Oral tramadol’s current schedule IV classification reflects the scientific understanding that tramadol has less abuse potential than conventional pure mu opioid agonists and is supported by extensive preclinical, clinical, post-marketing and epidemiological studies conducted by various academic institutions, sponsors, and government agencies, including the recent report on tramadol by the WHO expert committee on drug dependence in November 2018 (WHO 2018), as well as our review of the data on the abuse of tramadol in the U.S. and in European countries where IV formulation is available (Section 7)."

It's a weak opioid Hankins, but it's still an opioid.

Again it is absolutely not an opioid it is misclassified. If any of you actually had a history of opioid usage you would know that. I read some articles explaining why the FDA misclassified it at one point but regardless it is misclassified not an opioid.

All opioids do the exact same thing at dosage there is no difference between vicodin, nubain, fentanyly, oxycoton, and Heroin it is all the same at dosage it will all have the exact same effect. Except Tramadol it has absolutely will not have any opioid effect at any dosage because it is not an opioid.

Hmnmmmmm

"Tramadol was approved for marketing in the United States as a non-controlled analgesic in 1995 under the trade name of Ultram®. However, soon after its approval there have been reports of diversion and abuse of tramadol. This led to revisions to the product labeling and the addition of warnings about its abuse by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Tramadol is an opioid analgesic and opioid activity is the overriding contributor to its pharmacological effects. Abuse and adverse events of tramadol are similar to those of other opioid analgesics."

https://www.deadiversion.usdoj.gov/drug_chem_info/tramadol.pdf

As of FEB 2024 DICK CHEESE!!!

You should be banned for how stupid you are.  Please point out these articles you read.   Why would anyone's history of opioid usage give them the understanding on classification?

Do you really think his  “chest day” of 4 sets of bench press with 4 min rest between sets causes any inflammation.

He IS the Charlotte Cup champ....soooooo there's that (I guess)

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