Thought you'd find this interesting (from apologeticspress.org) also:
"If a wicked man turns from his wickedness, God no longer holds the threat against him. If a righteous man turns from righteousness to wickedness, God withdraws the previously promised blessings. It is precisely because God is immutable that His relationship to men, and/or His treatment of them, varies with the changes in their conduct. When the Scriptures thus speak of “God having repented,” the wording is accommodative (viz., written from a human vantage point). As Samuel Davidson has well said: “When repentance is attributed to God, it implies a change in His mode of dealing with men, such as would indicate on their part a change of purpose” (1843, p. 527). From a human vantage point, we view God’s act(s) as “repentance.” But, in reality, God’s immutable law has not changed one iota; only the response of man to that law has changed. Seen in this light, God cannot be accused of any self-contradictory attributes."
My
first question would be: How does Samuel Davidson know that this is what is meant by repentance? By the way that it is used, how can God "repent of evil" that he must do to someone when it is meant that he simply changes his position on how to treat them? "Repent of evil" as used in Jeremaih 18:8 would suggest a regret or some sort of atonement.
Also, How can God do "evil"? Is this even possible? Wouldn't this mean that God is not totally good?
Second question: Does god ever regret what he has done?
God created man w/o sin. Man, through free will chose to sin and sin entered the world.
Wouldn't the willingness to commit sin be considered a sin? Why weren't Adam and Eve UNWILLING to commit sin? Why didn't they choose NOT to commit sin? Why didn't God make them un
willing to eat of the fruit tree? This would still mean they have total free will, but simply would not be willing to contradict their God.
I don't see how you mean to not affect free will as it is by changing man a little? It would affect it, right?
No. Going by the bible, Humans are the way that they are because they were made that way by God. Adam and eve were willing to do some things and unwilling to do others because they were made that way by God, Right? Why were they "willing" to sin? Why didn't they just "choose" not to sin? If God changed some thing in their brains that made then CHOOSE NOT to sin, then they have the choice anyway but they CHOOSE not to sin and thus still have freewill.
ALSO, If Humans were made in Gods image, and humans had the capacity to sin and were willing to commit sin, then does this mean that God too has the capacity and willingness to commit sin? Wouldn't this contradict God being totally good and sinless?
And humans still choose to have babies knowing (or assuming) that they will disappoint in the future.
Humans rarely "choose" to have babies anyway. It's often an accident. I was an accident. My parents did not say "hey, lets go have sex and make a baby". They did it for other reasons. The same is true for perhaps 95% of people on this planet. They were accidents.
If two people KNEW that their children would disappoint them, would they have them if given the choice and being in total control of their behaviors? I doubt it. Maybe they would still want to have children because they are victims of their genetic urges to parent children, but does God have genetic urges that made him want to create humans? If so, how can be be all powerful if he is victim to his various inherent urges?
Maybe, maybe not. Some say they were great warriors. If Nephilium is a word for great warriors or whatever, they are just people.
But the point is that they LIVED the flood. The Bible suggests that they were not humans, but either way, this would contradict the verse that says that every living thing that creeps or craws died in the flood.
