Author Topic: Redistribution of Wealth  (Read 6991 times)

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #50 on: October 28, 2008, 06:43:28 AM »

Yeah...I know that money didn't go for a good cause did it...it didn't help bury the Soviets, or lay the groundwork for the Clinton boom.....or the Tech revolution...nope we just spent it on coke and Miami Vice...it had nothing to do with the Wall coming down...nope all wasted.  ::)
Reagan's tax policy did not 'lay the groundwork' for the Clinton/tech boom any more than Gerald Ford's tax policies paved the way for the 'Reagan Boom."

That's just hogwash.

The Soviets fell b/c of a 40+ year cold war policy of the US...

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #51 on: October 28, 2008, 06:50:08 AM »
Income Tax IS stealing.
It's not stealing according the US Constitution's 16th Amendment.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sixteenth_Amendment_to_the_United_States_Constitution

You might want to rethink your opinion.

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #52 on: October 28, 2008, 06:52:42 AM »
Arguing with socialists is useless.  They believe the govt owns you and your labor. 
In a way you are correct since We the People are the government.

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They really believe the govt should get 100% of your check and doll it out to you afterwards.
I think you believe that.

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Most people have no idea that the progressive income tax is one of the tenants pushed by Karl Marx as a way to communism.  Dont bother trying to get the fools on this board to understand that because they wont. 
Adam Smith was a proponent of the progressive income tax.  It was one the tenets of his beliefs as was the "invisible hand."

MRDUMPLING

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #53 on: October 28, 2008, 06:58:51 AM »
Collecting taxes is not the same as "spreading the wealth around".  Collecting taxes should go towards things like defense, infrastructure, schools, libraries, etc. 

Soul Crusher

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #54 on: October 28, 2008, 07:12:26 AM »
Collecting taxes is not the same as "spreading the wealth around".  Collecting taxes should go towards things like defense, infrastructure, schools, libraries, etc. 

The Obamabots want to use taxes as a way of social engineering and punishment.

 

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #55 on: October 28, 2008, 07:18:23 AM »
The Obamabots want to use taxes as a way of social engineering and punishment.

 
The entire tax code has carrots and sticks for pushing certain types of behavior.  A type of social engineering.

headhuntersix

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #56 on: October 28, 2008, 07:49:55 AM »
The American economy was in shambles when Reagan entered office in 1981. Inflation had soared by 25% over the prior two years, unemployment was heading toward 10%, the prime interest rate hit 21%, poverty was on a 33% upswing and real family income had decreased by almost 10% due to the stagflation of the late 1970s.

Reagan cut the top income-tax rate from 70% to 50%, adopted an additional 25% across-the-board rate cut and sliced capital gains taxes in half. The 1986 tax reform left us with just two tax rates of 15% and 28%. Reagan slashed spending growth, lowered tariffs, reduced regulatory burdens and promoted anti-inflation monetary policies.

The result, the authors explain, was actually a 25-year, noninflationary economic boom, with only two brief, mild recessions in 1990 and 2001. "We call this period, 1982-2007, the 25-year boom — the greatest period of wealth creation in the history of the planet," they write. "Adjusting for inflation, more wealth was created in America in the 25-year boom than in the previous 200 years."

By 1989, the economy had grown by almost one-third, the equivalent of adding the entire economy of West Germany to our U.S. economy. In 1984 alone, real economic growth boomed by 6.8%, the highest in 50 years. Nearly 20 million new jobs were created in the 1980s, increasing U.S. civilian employment by almost 20%. Unemployment fell to 5.3% by 1989.

Spectacularly, inflation was slashed to 3.2% by 1983. The prime rate fell to 6.25% by 1992, even though opponents had argued that Reagan's tax cuts would increase interest rates. Family income reversed its decline, poverty reversed its rise and tax revenues actually doubled.
L

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #57 on: October 28, 2008, 07:54:08 AM »
The American economy was in shambles when Reagan entered office in 1981. Inflation had soared by 25% over the prior two years, unemployment was heading toward 10%, the prime interest rate hit 21%, poverty was on a 33% upswing and real family income had decreased by almost 10% due to the stagflation of the late 1970s.

Reagan cut the top income-tax rate from 70% to 50%, adopted an additional 25% across-the-board rate cut and sliced capital gains taxes in half. The 1986 tax reform left us with just two tax rates of 15% and 28%. Reagan slashed spending growth, lowered tariffs, reduced regulatory burdens and promoted anti-inflation monetary policies.

The result, the authors explain, was actually a 25-year, noninflationary economic boom, with only two brief, mild recessions in 1990 and 2001. "We call this period, 1982-2007, the 25-year boom — the greatest period of wealth creation in the history of the planet," they write. "Adjusting for inflation, more wealth was created in America in the 25-year boom than in the previous 200 years."

By 1989, the economy had grown by almost one-third, the equivalent of adding the entire economy of West Germany to our U.S. economy. In 1984 alone, real economic growth boomed by 6.8%, the highest in 50 years. Nearly 20 million new jobs were created in the 1980s, increasing U.S. civilian employment by almost 20%. Unemployment fell to 5.3% by 1989.

Spectacularly, inflation was slashed to 3.2% by 1983. The prime rate fell to 6.25% by 1992, even though opponents had argued that Reagan's tax cuts would increase interest rates. Family income reversed its decline, poverty reversed its rise and tax revenues actually doubled.

Reagan's tax cuts had little to do with the economic recovery.  Chr. of the Fed Paul Volcker induced a steep recession and then slashed interest rates to help stimulate the economy.  When the business cycle turned for the better, that action by the Fed helped cause the major explosion of the economy.

Tax cuts do not govern our country's economic performance.  The business cycle and the Fed do that.

Bindare_Dundat

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #58 on: October 28, 2008, 08:10:45 AM »
Reagan's tax cuts had little to do with the economic recovery.  Chr. of the Fed Paul Volcker induced a steep recession and then slashed interest rates to help stimulate the economy.  When the business cycle turned for the better, that action by the Fed helped cause the major explosion of the economy.

Tax cuts do not govern our country's economic performance.  The business cycle and the Fed do that.

..and the Fed's been doing a great job at it.  ::)

Anyway, once i get some more time today I'll post some court decisions and other information that support my stance on the income tax. I'd like to hear your opinions on it Decker.

Soul Crusher

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #59 on: October 28, 2008, 08:48:00 AM »
..and the Fed's been doing a great job at it.  ::)

Anyway, once i get some more time today I'll post some court decisions and other information that support my stance on the income tax. I'd like to hear your opinions on it Decker.

Dont bother, he thinks that the govt should tax us at 100%.  Since already paying 50% is not enough to him, 100% is where he is at.

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #60 on: October 28, 2008, 09:06:25 AM »
..and the Fed's been doing a great job at it.  ::)

Anyway, once i get some more time today I'll post some court decisions and other information that support my stance on the income tax. I'd like to hear your opinions on it Decker.
Yeah, it should be fun.

the fucking Fed.  hrumph hrumph

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #61 on: October 28, 2008, 09:07:50 AM »
Dont bother, he thinks that the govt should tax us at 100%.  Since already paying 50% is not enough to him, 100% is where he is at.
Good point!

Have you been practicing writing your checks to the IRS yet?

Bindare_Dundat

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #62 on: October 29, 2008, 08:23:42 AM »
Yeah, it should be fun.

the fucking Fed.  hrumph hrumph

1. 1861 - Income tax first appears in American law as an income DUTY (see The Income Duty of 1861), and a Federal Employee Agreement (see The Federal Employment Tax) I’m sure you are aware that duties are imposed on goods leaving the country and not on domestic productivity, and as such, this tax did not affect U.S. citizens domestic earnings, ONLY foreigners and Federal officers and employees. The Federal Judges become the first "tax protesters" by refusing to submit to the tax for 70 years until 1932.

2. 1898 - In Pollock v. Farmers Loan & Trust Co. (1898)) the Supreme Court strikes down an Act of Congress that attempted to expand the application of the income tax and impose it on the interest and dividends from funds on deposit at U.S. banks, ruling that the tax was UNCONSTITUTIONAL because it was a direct tax without apportionment, as required by Article 1 for all direct taxes (Referenced Sections of the Constitution).

3. 1913 - The 16th Amendment is passed and allegedly ratified by 3/4ths of the States, although to this day, the Federal government still will not produce or release for examination the ratification documents supposedly received from the states.

4. 1916 - The Brushaber v. Union Pacific R.R. Co. (1916) decision rules that the 16th amendment IS constitutional because it is NOT a direct tax, but rather, is an INDIRECT tax that is part of a tariff act, which does not have to be apportioned because tariffs are one form of an impost, which must be uniform, but do not have to be apportioned. The Court further refers the reader to Flint v. Stone Tracy Co. (1911) for the definition of what an excise tax is, thus laying the groundwork for the Alcohol, Tobacco & Firearms income taxes of Subtitle E (Title 26). This ruling means that the 16th Amendment has no legal effect except to permanently entrench the income tax in the indirect category of taxation as either an impost, or an excise. In Flint vs. Stone Tracy the Court ruled that excise taxes are:

"taxes on the manufacture, consumption and sale of commodities within the country,
on licenses to pursue certain occupations,
and on corporate privileges."


Given this fact, how would income tax be applied to income of citizens NOT derived from these three defined excise taxable activities ? Treasury Decision 2313 was issued by the commissioner of the IRS as a result of this Supreme Court decision. It clearly states that non-resident aliens are liable for the tax, and that the income of those nonresident aliens is to be reported on Form 1040. It does NOT say "citizens" or "all persons" because it was properly understood that citizens are not subject to the tax unless they are engaging in PRIVILEGED activities. Citizens have a RIGHT TO WORK, and our rights cannot be taxed. In fact, this Treasury Decision explicitly references an exemption (for citizens, at Sec. 6654. Failure to Pay Estimated Tax, Exceptions), as paragraph C, that nonresident aliens cannot claim.

5. 1916 - Stanton v. Baltic Mining Co. (1916) the Court rules that the 16th Amendment "CONFERS NO NEW POWERS OF TAXATION" upon Congress. It does not create a new authority to tax citizens directly without apportionment (because it is an indirect tax), according to the Supreme Court itself. So if it was unconstitutional to tax the interest and dividends (of citizens) before the 16th (according to Pollock), and no new powers to tax are created by the 16th, how can the income tax be constitutionally imposed today on those sources when Pollock has never been overturned or reversed ?

6. 1918 - The 75 year Canadian Tax treaty is signed and Section 213 (Section 22(a) in the 1939 Code - now Section 61) are added to the United States Code, defining the sources of taxable income from the Canadian sources subject to the income tax under the new tax treaty. Income earned in a foreign country under a tax treaty is taxable income, and therefore, is subject to the income tax.

7. 1918 - 1935 The income tax is properly collected, not from all U.S. citizens, but only from those who derive income from the territories or from privileged or licensed activities, as determined by the Supreme Court in Brushaber, The income tax is also properly collected from foreigners earning money in the U.S., from any source, per the instructions issued in Treasury Decision 2313.

1935 - Social Security begins (Subtitle C - Employment taxes). Foreigners are required, citizens may volunteer to participate but are not required to do so by law. Those who voluntarily take a number and provide it to an employer, voluntarily subject their wages to tax. This begins the withholding of tax at the source from U.S. citizens, but not for income tax purposes (under Subtitle A), just for Social Security (Subtitle C) purposes. The W-4 (or its predecessor) provides a legal authority for the withholding of employment tax from the citizen by the EMPLOYER. The use of W-4s by citizens originates under Sec. 3402. Income Tax Collected at Source, subsection (p) - Voluntary Withholding Agreements. This Form becomes the legal basis and ONLY legal authority in the U.S. Code under which the withholding of tax from U.S. citizens is authorized. Social security taxes are now withheld from wages, which are covered (under social security) earnings.

1939 - Involvement in World War II begins and there is sudenly lots of new money for the government (and debt for the People), provided by the very same bankers who just 2 years earlier supposedly did not have a penny to loan to farmers and businesses for peace, but suddenly had unlimited billions for a war the America people did not even want to be in.

1942 - The Victory tax is imposed and it is withheld from citizens’ wages. (This tax was probably unconstitutionally direct but no one challenged it.)

1944 - Present. The victory tax is repealed and the authority to withhold tax from citizens expires with it, but the withholding of tax continues after the passage of the Current Tax Payment Act, and Form W-4 is modified to include a voluntary request to "claim a number of deductions". This of course relates to income tax, not Social Security (or employment taxes under Subtitle C). The W-4 is now a voluntary withholding agreement that covers BOTH Employment taxes AND Income taxes, which are withheld at the voluntary request of the citizen on the W-4. However, under the law, only foreign persons and certain federal employees are required to make a "return of income" to the Treasury as a result of their "employment". Additionally, the law provides that the W-2 is to be accepted by the IRS as a SUBSTITUTE FORM 1040 (see Form W-2 Can Substitute For A Form 1040 !!).

It should be carefully noted that Employers are authorized BY statute to withhold employment taxes under Subtitle C (26 USC 3402) from those who participate in Social Security and have provided a number, but are authorized BY REQUEST (on the W-4 under 26 USC 3402(p)) to withhold Subtitle A INCOME tax from citizens. The statutory authority to withhold income tax is granted to Withholding Agents under Subtitle A, not employers. The definition of a "withholding agent" is provided in Sec. 7701. Withholding Agent & Definitions, where the agent is authorized to deduct and withhold from foreigners, and only foreigners, exactly as the tax was authorized and collected for the first 16 years (1916-1932) of its existence as part of a tariff act.

The last paragraph accurately reflects the legal reality of today’s situation. While you are correct that the tax laws are imposed as "liabilities" NOT filing requirements, the only code sections that exist in the U.S.C. that actually specify or establish liability for tax are Sec. 1461. Liability for Withheld Tax and Sec. 3403. Liability for Tax. If you believe that there is another code section that establishes liability for the income tax, Please cite it now.

If you believe that Sec. 1. Tax Imposed establishes LIABILITY, you need to read it more closely. It imposes a tax on "taxable income", but does not mention liability. If Section 1 creates liability, who is liable ? Where does it say that ? The truth is that 26 CFR 602.101 - The Form Required reveals the true extent of any liability that may be imposed under Section 1 as being limited to a liability for "taxable income", earned in foreign countries under foreign tax treaties.


QUESTION: Where are the laws regarding income tax contained in the U.S. Code ?

QUESTION: How many Chapters are there in that Subtitle ?

QUESTION: Where in those 6 chapters do you find the withholding of income tax from American citizens ?

Please respond with a cite of the specific code section that you claim establishes this authority.

The Eisner vs Montgomery Case defines "income" as gains or profits that are made from some activity.


Bindare_Dundat

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #63 on: October 29, 2008, 08:25:32 AM »
I'd like your opinion on this IRS commisioners answers as well. What do you make of it?


Bindare_Dundat

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #64 on: October 29, 2008, 08:27:48 AM »
New York Times reporter, David Cay Johnston, asks IRS Commissioner Mark Everson - "What law requires Americans to file or pay income taxes?"


Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #65 on: October 29, 2008, 08:30:30 AM »
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2. 1898 - In Pollock v. Farmers Loan & Trust Co. (1898)) the Supreme Court strikes down an Act of Congress that attempted to expand the application of the income tax and impose it on the interest and dividends from funds on deposit at U.S. banks, ruling that the tax was UNCONSTITUTIONAL because it was a direct tax without apportionment, as required by Article 1 for all direct taxes (Referenced Sections of the Constitution).


Most tax protester arguments that a tax on incomes is a “direct tax” rely in one way or another on the decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court in Pollock v. Farmers’ Loan and Trust Co., 157 U.S. 429 (1894), on reh’ng 158 U.S. 601 (1895).

In the first Pollock decision, a majority of the court (7 of the 9 justices) began with the premise that a tax on the income from property is the same as a tax on the value of the property itself, a premise completely inconsistent with every other Supreme Court decision before or since (and repudiated by the Supreme Court in New York v. Graves, 300 U.S. 308 (1937)).

The Court then concluded that a tax on rents received from real property was a “direct tax” and unconstitutional unless apportioned. Pollock v. Farmers’ Loan and Trust Co., 157 U.S. 429 (1894). On rehearing, a narrower majority (5 of the 9 justices) decided that a tax on dividends, interest, and other income from personal property (property other than land) was also a “direct tax” and so unconstitutional unless apportioned. Pollock v. Farmers Bank and Trust Co., 158 U.S. 601 (1895).

However, the Pollock decisions were rendered in 1894-5 and there is no question but that the 16th Amendment, which was proposed in 1909 and ratified by the required three-fourths of the states in slightly less than four years, was intended to over-rule the Pollock decisions.

“[T]there is no escape from the conclusion that the Amendment was drawn for the purpose of doing away for the future with the principle upon which the Pollock Case was decided....”
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Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #66 on: October 29, 2008, 08:34:39 AM »
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3. 1913 - The 16th Amendment is passed and allegedly ratified by 3/4ths of the States, although to this day, the Federal government still will not produce or release for examination the ratification documents supposedly received from the states.
The 16th Am was ratified.

Although the Constitution describes how to ratify amendments, it doesn’t say who is supposed to keep track of the ratification process and let us know when the required three-fourths of the states have ratified an amendment. After some confusion about the status of some amendments (including the infamous “Titles of Nobility” amendment that fell at least one state short of ratification, but appeared in numerous copies of the Constitution in the early and middle 1800s), Congress decided that the Secretary of State should certify what amendments have been ratified. Congress proposed the 16th Amendment on July 12, 1909, and, on February 3, 1913, Secretary of State Philander Knox certified that it had been ratified.

According to the Office of the Law Revision Counsel of the U. S. House of Representatives, the dates of ratification by the states were (chronologically): Alabama, August 10, 1909; Kentucky, February 8, 1910; South Carolina, February 19, 1910; Illinois, March 1, 1910; Mississippi, March 7, 1910; Oklahoma, March 10, 1910; Maryland, April 8, 1910; Georgia, August 3, 1910; Texas, August 16, 1910; Ohio, January 19, 1911; Idaho, January 20, 1911; Oregon, January 23, 1911; Washington, January 26, 1911; Montana, January 30, 1911; Indiana, January 30, 1911; California, January 31, 1911; Nevada, January 31, 1911; South Dakota, February 3, 1911; Nebraska, February 9, 1911; North Carolina, February 11, 1911; Colorado, February 15, 1911; North Dakota, February 17, 1911; Kansas, February 18, 1911; Michigan, February 23, 1911; Iowa, February 24, 1911; Missouri, March 16, 1911; Maine, March 31, 1911; Tennessee, April 7, 1911; Arkansas, April 22, 1911 (after having rejected it earlier); Wisconsin, May 26, 1911; New York, July 12, 1911; Arizona, April 6, 1912; Minnesota, June 11, 1912; Louisiana, June 28, 1912; West Virginia, January 31, 1913; New Mexico, February 3, 1913. The amendment was subsequently ratified by Massachusetts, March 4, 1913; New Hampshire, March 7, 1913 (after having rejected it on March 2, 1911). The amendment was rejected (and not subsequently ratified) by Connecticut, Rhode Island, and Utah.
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Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #67 on: October 29, 2008, 08:42:05 AM »
Quote
4. 1916 - The Brushaber v. Union Pacific R.R. Co. (1916) decision rules that the 16th amendment IS constitutional because it is NOT a direct tax, but rather, is an INDIRECT tax that is part of a tariff act, which does not have to be apportioned because tariffs are one form of an impost, which must be uniform, but do not have to be apportioned. The Court further refers the reader to Flint v. Stone Tracy Co. (1911) for the definition of what an excise tax is, thus laying the groundwork for the Alcohol, Tobacco & Firearms income taxes of Subtitle E (Title 26). This ruling means that the 16th Amendment has no legal effect except to permanently entrench the income tax in the indirect category of taxation as either an impost, or an excise. In Flint vs. Stone Tracy the Court ruled that excise taxes are:

"taxes on the manufacture, consumption and sale of commodities within the country,
on licenses to pursue certain occupations,
and on corporate privileges."


Following the ratification of the 16th Amendment, Congress enacted a general income tax, and the constitutionality of that tax was challenged once again, but the Supreme Court held unanimously that the income tax was constitutional because “in express terms the Amendment provides that income taxes, from whatever source the income may be derived, shall not be subject to the regulation of apportionment.” Brushaber v. Union Pacific R.R. Co., 240 U.S. 1 (1916).

As for the direct/indirect tax confusion, It is true that there is an apportionment requirement in the Constitution for “direct taxes,” but the 16th Amendment clearly eliminates the apportionment requirement from all taxes on incomes. 

The meaning of “direct tax” urged by many tax protesters as a “tax imposed directly” would trivialize the Constitution, because it reduces the constitutional definition of “direct tax” to a mere question of how the tax is collected. So, if the U.S. were to impose a tax on employees for the wages they receive, that would be a “direct tax” according to the tax protester definition, but if the U.S. were to impose a tax on employers for wages paid (or a tax on banks for the payment of interest, or on corporations for the payment of dividends), that would be an “indirect tax” and constitutional, even though the net effect would be exactly the same (i.e., the employees or depositors or shareholders would bear the burden of the tax through reduced wages and salaries, interest, or dividends). The meaning of “direct tax” that has been consistently applied by the Supreme Court is much more sensible (as well as consistent with the known intent of the framers of the Constitution), because it focuses on what is being taxed (the value of property, but not transfers of property) rather than on how the tax is collected.
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Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #68 on: October 29, 2008, 08:49:20 AM »
Quote
5. 1916 - Stanton v. Baltic Mining Co. (1916) the Court rules that the 16th Amendment "CONFERS NO NEW POWERS OF TAXATION" upon Congress. It does not create a new authority to tax citizens directly without apportionment (because it is an indirect tax), according to the Supreme Court itself. So if it was unconstitutional to tax the interest and dividends (of citizens) before the 16th (according to Pollock), and no new powers to tax are created by the 16th, how can the income tax be constitutionally imposed today on those sources when Pollock has never been overturned or reversed ?


The Pollock decisions were rendered in 1894-5 and...the 16th Amendment, which was proposed in 1909 and ratified by the required three-fourths of the states, was intended to over-rule the Pollock decisions.

This 'No New Powers of Taxation" statement is taken from language in the opinions of the United States Supreme Court in the Brushaber and Stanton cases and, unlike most other tax protester nonsense, it is actually true.

The problem is not that the statement is false, but that it doesn’t mean what tax protesters think it means and it doesn’t lead to the conclusion that tax protesters want to reach.

Tax protesters believe that, before the adoption of the 16th Amendment, a tax on incomes was unconstitutional and therefore outside the power of Congress. This is not correct because it was clear even before the 16th Amendment that Congress could tax wages and earnings from employment, as well as income from business operations. By incorrectly asserting that a tax on incomes was unconstitutional before the 16th Amendment, and then asserting that the 16th Amendment gave Congress no new power to tax, tax protesters reach the incorrect conclusion that a tax on incomes must be unconstitutional even after the adoption of the 16th Amendment, which is ridiculous.

It is ridiculous because it would mean that the 16th Amendment does not mean what it says. The amendment plainly states that “The Congress shall have the power to tax incomes” and tax protesters nevertheless try to claim that Congress does not have the power to tax incomes.

It is also ridiculous because it would mean that Congress proposed a constitutional amendment, and the states ratified a constitutional amendment, that changed nothing and has no meaning....

The Supreme Court has never stated that the 16th Amendment gave Congress “no new power” without also affirming that Congress already had the power to tax incomes even before the 16th Amendment.
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Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #69 on: October 29, 2008, 09:24:06 AM »
Quote
6. 1918 - The 75 year Canadian Tax treaty is signed and Section 213 (Section 22(a) in the 1939 Code - now Section 61) are added to the United States Code, defining the sources of taxable income from the Canadian sources subject to the income tax under the new tax treaty. Income earned in a foreign country under a tax treaty is taxable income, and therefore, is subject to the income tax.

7. 1918 - 1935 The income tax is properly collected, not from all U.S. citizens, but only from those who derive income from the territories or from privileged or licensed activities, as determined by the Supreme Court in Brushaber, The income tax is also properly collected from foreigners earning money in the U.S., from any source, per the instructions issued in Treasury Decision 2313.


Here are the holdings from the Brushaber case: 

1.  The Sixteenth Amendment removes the requirement that income taxes be apportioned among the states according to population. The Revenue Act of 1913, imposing income taxes that are not apportioned among the states according to each state's population, is not unconstitutional.
2.  The Federal income tax statute does not violate the Fifth Amendment's prohibition against the government taking property without due process of law.
3.  The Federal income tax statute does not violate the uniformity clause of Article I, section 8 of the U.S. Constitution. 

US citizens are subject to income taxation—foreigners are also subject to income taxation if they have a US source of income.

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #70 on: October 29, 2008, 09:29:17 AM »
Quote
1935 - Social Security begins (Subtitle C - Employment taxes). Foreigners are required, citizens may volunteer to participate but are not required to do so by law. Those who voluntarily take a number and provide it to an employer, voluntarily subject their wages to tax. This begins the withholding of tax at the source from U.S. citizens, but not for income tax purposes (under Subtitle A), just for Social Security (Subtitle C) purposes. The W-4 (or its predecessor) provides a legal authority for the withholding of employment tax from the citizen by the EMPLOYER. The use of W-4s by citizens originates under Sec. 3402. Income Tax Collected at Source, subsection (p) - Voluntary Withholding Agreements. This Form becomes the legal basis and ONLY legal authority in the U.S. Code under which the withholding of tax from U.S. citizens is authorized. Social security taxes are now withheld from wages, which are covered (under social security) earnings.


…the federal income tax is not based on contract or consent, but is an obligation imposed by law. Similarly, Form W-4 is not an “agreement” but a document required by law to be filed with the employer (and not the IRS). And if an employee does not file a Form W-4 with the employer, the consequence is not freedom from tax by tax withholding at the highest possible rate. (There are also possible civil penalties.)

I.R.C. section 3402(f)(2)(A) provides as follows:

“On or before the date of the commencement of employment with an employer, the employee shall furnish the employer with a signed withholding exemption certificate relating to the number of withholding exemptions which he claims, which shall in no event exceed the number to which he is entitled.”
And Treas. Reg. section 31.3402(f)(5)-1(a) states that “Form W-4 is the form prescribed for the withholding exemption certificate required to be filed under section 3402(f)(2).”

The words “shall” in the statute, and “required” in the regulation, show that the furnishing of the form is not optional, and not the basis of an agreement.

The failure to provide a Form W-4 to an employer means that the employer must withhold income tax at the rate for a single employee with no exemptions (i.e., the highest possible rate).

“The employer is required to request a withholding exemption certificate from each employee, but if the employee fails to furnish such certificate, such employee shall be considered as a single person claiming no withholding exemptions.”
http://evans-legal.com/dan/tpfaq.html#individual

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #71 on: October 29, 2008, 09:35:08 AM »
Quote
QUESTION: Where are the laws regarding income tax contained in the U.S. Code ?

More semantic games from people desperate to evade taxes.

Tax protesters claim that, before anyone can be liable for a tax, there must be a statute that specifically says that the person is liable for the tax (and must use the word “liable”). However, that is not what the law requires.

In its various subsections, section 1 of the Internal Revenue Code says that “There is hereby imposed on the taxable income of every [married individual, surviving spouse, head of a household, unmarried individual, or married individual filing a separate return] a tax determined in accordance with the following table.. ..”

As explained in the regulations:
“Section 1 of the Code imposes an income tax on the income of every individual who is a citizen or resident of the United States ....”
Treas. Reg. § 1.1-1(a)(1).

The word “impose” means “to establish or apply as compulsory; levy.” So how can a tax be “imposed” if no one is compelled to pay it? The answer is that it can’t. If a tax is imposed on a person’s income, then that person is liable for the tax as a matter of law.
http://evans-legal.com/dan/tpfaq.html#liable

Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #72 on: October 29, 2008, 09:42:01 AM »
New York Times reporter, David Cay Johnston, asks IRS Commissioner Mark Everson - "What law requires Americans to file or pay income taxes?"


I can't watch that at work.

Here's the law that gives the congress the power to levy income taxes:  16th amendment.

“Section 1 of the Code imposes an income tax on the income of every individual who is a citizen or resident of the United States ....”
Treas. Reg. § 1.1-1(a)(1).


Decker

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #73 on: October 29, 2008, 09:49:29 AM »
I'd like your opinion on this IRS commisioners answers as well. What do you make of it?


If you could paraphrase what he said, that would help.

shootfighter1

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Re: Redistribution of Wealth
« Reply #74 on: October 29, 2008, 11:55:16 AM »
I'd love to have the time to read all of those posts thoroughly but posting at work does not allow the time.  I like this post:

"Collecting taxes is not the same as "spreading the wealth around".  Collecting taxes should go towards needed things like defense, infrastructure, schools, libraries, etc"

The gov's job should be to make sure corporations are playing by the same rules.  I don't believe taxes in this country were ever meant to punish people for being sucessful.  If we made everyone (including business) pay their stated taxes, we wouldn't have to raise taxes on the upper middle class and wealthy.