Author Topic: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?  (Read 18394 times)

MCWAY

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #25 on: April 05, 2010, 09:06:11 AM »
...so you found one passage contradictory to one of the 60+ passages I cited?

No, I found WAAAAAAAY more than one of your falsehoods. That particular item was simply the first that came to mind.


Okay, that's to be expected... the Bible is full of contradiction. "Thou Shallt not kill"... "Kill all the Canaanites" etc etc.

NOPE!! The 6th commandment is consistent with the 2nd commandment.


What's your point?

Shariah Law is a Draconian misogynistic homophobic Middle-Eastern populace suppression methodology... Mosaic law is also a Draconian misogynistic homophobic Middle-Eastern populace suppression methodology.

The Koran is mostly plagiarised from the Torah/Old Testament... hence Shariah Law and Mosaic Law are essentially the same.

Christian Fundamentalists and Muslim Fundamentalists are essentially the same.

Muslim oppression is essentially the same as would be enforced by Fundamentalist Evangelicals.


The only problem with the Middle East is that they don't have a vibrant atheist movement to help save them from themselves, the way atheism and humanist rationalism saved the West from it's Christian fringe element.

Shariah Law... Palin Law... tomAto, tomato.


The Luke

"Tomato, Asparagus" is more like it. Atheism hasn't saved anyone from anyhting. Quite the opposite, it appears, people have had to be saved from atheism run amuck, as seen by the regimes of Stalin and Hitler.

Your tired quips have been torn asunder, more than once, and by others besides little ol' me.

Lost in all of this is why exactly are you crying about ANYONE'S law being Draconian? If man can make up his own morals and rules or be morally "fluid" (as many atheist claims), then what you call "Draconian" would be a simple example of such fluidity.


The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #26 on: April 05, 2010, 09:17:15 AM »
Lost in all of this is why exactly are you crying about ANYONE'S law being Draconian? If man can make up his own morals and rules or be morally "fluid" (as many atheist claims), then what you call "Draconian" would be a simple example of such fluidity.

What's with the quotation marks?

You're not quoting ME.

Every single post you trot out your own misunderstanding of atheist morality... the only people who believe morality is only what they are TOLD is right and wrong are psychopaths; not atheists.

Guess we now know which type of person YOU are... seeing as you defend every abominable act your imaginary friend ordered.


The Luke

loco

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #27 on: April 05, 2010, 09:44:21 AM »
Well then...

Believe what you were told to believe.

Read only what agrees with your prejudices.

Cite only propaganda websites producing lies designed to reinforce your conditioning.

Call everyone who disagrees a liar, over and over again till you can convince yourself they are lying.

Never think for yourself.

Purge your mind of all logic.

Avoid all rationality.


Eventually, you will be able to re-interpret this reality so at odds with your delusions as somehow reinforcing your base; infantile fantasies.


The Luke

But Luke, you don't cite anything at all.  You pull stuff out of your butt, with nothing to back it up.

The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #28 on: April 05, 2010, 10:20:48 AM »
But Luke, you don't cite anything at all.  You pull stuff out of your butt, with nothing to back it up.

I'm not responsible for your education... I can't make you learn... if you don't believe what I write, then check it out for yourself.


Let's take an example from this thread (have you noticed how often I write these detailed examples that are far more informative than posting a link which most on this board wouldn't read anyway?)...

I claimed:
"Read the origin myth of Sargon of Akkad... that's where Moses' origin story comes from."

You could dismiss that by claiming I didn't cite a source; but that's a "Catch 22" situation for me... if I cite a source you guys believe to be biased; you know, some sort of atheist or liberal or humanist or realist or scientist website, it just gets dismissed based solely on your Christian bias.

What can I cite? How many Evangelical Christian Apologist websites are eager to draw a parallel between Moses and Sargon?

Not many... not any.


But maybe we could type "Sargon of Akkad" into Google, and get: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sargon_of_Akkad

Voila! There's Sargon's origin myth I was referring to:

"My mother was a high priestess, my father I knew not. The brothers of my father loved the hills. My city is Azupiranu, which is situated on the banks of the Euphrates. My high priestess mother conceived me, in secret she bore me. She set me in a basket of rushes, with bitumen she sealed my lid. She cast me into the river [Euphrates] which rose over me. The river bore me up and carried me to Akki, the drawer of water. Akki, the drawer of water, took me as his son and reared me. Akki, the drawer of water, appointed me as his gardener. While I was a gardener, Ishtar granted me her love, and for four and […] years I exercised kingship."

...isn't that suspicously similar to the Moses story?

It comes from the 7th century BC but refers to events which happened 2,300 BC.

But then again, the Moses story refers to events which happened 1,500 BC but weren't written down till 600 BC (Babylonian captivity).


So you still might not believe me.
(Had you checked my claim on the Babylonian creation myth there is no such ambiguity).


So you do a bit more research and soon find that literally dozens of semi-mythical characters have origin stories that involve them being "saved from water" in early infancy... but why?

It's code... copied over and over, from manuscript to manuscript, cross-fertilising many different cultures... an infant "saved from water" is really a double-meaning hinting that this individual knows the star-lore which was saved from antediluvian civilisation.


Do some of this research for yourself, you'll enjoy it.


The Luke

MCWAY

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #29 on: April 05, 2010, 11:25:36 AM »
What's with the quotation marks?

You're not quoting ME.

I am, when you mention the term, "Draconian", which you used in your earlier posts.


Every single post you trot out your own misunderstanding of atheist morality... the only people who believe morality is only what they are TOLD is right and wrong are psychopaths; not atheists.

Guess we now know which type of person YOU are... seeing as you defend every abominable act your imaginary friend ordered.


The Luke

It's not hard to understand that atheists, by their own words, have a floating or "fluid" sense of morality. Yet, they trip over themselves, when someone takes that to its most logical and extreme conclusion.

Plus, you've defended STEALING and LYING. If you can justify that, why are you wailing about someone else's allegedly "abominable" acts?

loco

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #30 on: April 05, 2010, 12:58:38 PM »
I'm not responsible for your education... I can't make you learn... if you don't believe what I write, then check it out for yourself.


Let's take an example from this thread (have you noticed how often I write these detailed examples that are far more informative than posting a link which most on this board wouldn't read anyway?)...

I claimed:
"Read the origin myth of Sargon of Akkad... that's where Moses' origin story comes from."

You could dismiss that by claiming I didn't cite a source; but that's a "Catch 22" situation for me... if I cite a source you guys believe to be biased; you know, some sort of atheist or liberal or humanist or realist or scientist website, it just gets dismissed based solely on your Christian bias.

What can I cite? How many Evangelical Christian Apologist websites are eager to draw a parallel between Moses and Sargon?

Not many... not any.


But maybe we could type "Sargon of Akkad" into Google, and get: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sargon_of_Akkad

Voila! There's Sargon's origin myth I was referring to:

"My mother was a high priestess, my father I knew not. The brothers of my father loved the hills. My city is Azupiranu, which is situated on the banks of the Euphrates. My high priestess mother conceived me, in secret she bore me. She set me in a basket of rushes, with bitumen she sealed my lid. She cast me into the river [Euphrates] which rose over me. The river bore me up and carried me to Akki, the drawer of water. Akki, the drawer of water, took me as his son and reared me. Akki, the drawer of water, appointed me as his gardener. While I was a gardener, Ishtar granted me her love, and for four and […] years I exercised kingship."

...isn't that suspicously similar to the Moses story?

It comes from the 7th century BC but refers to events which happened 2,300 BC.

But then again, the Moses story refers to events which happened 1,500 BC but weren't written down till 600 BC (Babylonian captivity).


So you still might not believe me.
(Had you checked my claim on the Babylonian creation myth there is no such ambiguity).


So you do a bit more research and soon find that literally dozens of semi-mythical characters have origin stories that involve them being "saved from water" in early infancy... but why?

It's code... copied over and over, from manuscript to manuscript, cross-fertilising many different cultures... an infant "saved from water" is really a double-meaning hinting that this individual knows the star-lore which was saved from antediluvian civilisation.


Do some of this research for yourself, you'll enjoy it.


The Luke

Luke,

For finally posting a link to anything, I give you props.  Other than that...

Exodus dates back to 1400 BC.

As for Sargon and Moses, what's so similar about their baby stories?  That they were both put in a waterproof basket and left floating on a river?  That's all?  And this automatically means that one event was plagiarized from another?

"What of the birth legend of Sargon? It is hardly likely that documentation of this will appear. The story is one common in various forms in folklore and is obviously comparable to the story of Moses in the bulrushes. Before we dismiss either or both as fiction, however, we should note that Babylonia and Egypt are both riverine cultures and that putting the baby in a waterproof basket might be a slightly more satisfactory way to dispose of an infant than throwing it on the rubbish heap, which was more usual. Today unwanted babies are frequently dumped on hospital doorsteps or in other public places in the hope that they will be rescued. The story of the foundling rising to eminence may be a motif of folklore, but that is surely because it is a story that occurs repeatedly in real life."
http://fontes.lstc.edu/~rklein/Documents/how_reliable_is_exodus.htm

Oh, and you have absolutely no excuse for not posting links or references to your sources when you pull stuff out of your butt.

The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #31 on: April 05, 2010, 01:26:32 PM »
"What of the birth legend of Sargon? It is hardly likely that documentation of this will appear. The story is one common in various forms in folklore and is obviously comparable to the story of Moses in the bulrushes. Before we dismiss either or both as fiction, however, we should note that Babylonia and Egypt are both riverine cultures and that putting the baby in a waterproof basket might be a slightly more satisfactory way to dispose of an infant than throwing it on the rubbish heap, which was more usual. Today unwanted babies are frequently dumped on hospital doorsteps or in other public places in the hope that they will be rescued. The story of the foundling rising to eminence may be a motif of folklore, but that is surely because it is a story that occurs repeatedly in real life."

...it's not just common, it's an astrological code.

The hero represents the sun (or sometimes humankind), there's almost always a river (the Milky Way), similarly "magical numbers" also appear with alarming regularity:

-12 disciples/companions/labours/tribes representing the Zodiac
-a lost or hidden 13th disciple/companion/tribe associated with the moon and/or the planet Venus (Mary Magdalene)
-the number 72 is worked into the story for some reason, it's the precessional number
-an Ark or boat which saves the first farmers from a deluge or a saltwater dragon (rising ocean levels)
-a garden centred around a magical tree (the pole) wherein live the first people
-a trial/mourning period of 40 days and 40 nights once every 40 years (re-synchronisation of the 40 year Venus cycle with the leap years and solar cycle)
-3 days in the underworld before resurrection/rebirth at the summer equinox (Easter)
-a sun god born on the 25th of December (or 4 days after the winter solstice)
-divine annunciations by the planet Mercury (or an angel/god representing it) to the planet Venus (or a divine virgin or 13th disciple representing it)

These patterns are well researched, and best understood as astrological metaphors.

Don't be afraid, look it up.


The Luke

MCWAY

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #32 on: April 06, 2010, 07:07:25 AM »
...it's not just common, it's an astrological code.

The hero represents the sun (or sometimes humankind), there's almost always a river (the Milky Way), similarly "magical numbers" also appear with alarming regularity:

-12 disciples/companions/labours/tribes representing the Zodiac
-a lost or hidden 13th disciple/companion/tribe associated with the moon and/or the planet Venus (Mary Magdalene)
-the number 72 is worked into the story for some reason, it's the precessional number
-an Ark or boat which saves the first farmers from a deluge or a saltwater dragon (rising ocean levels)
-a garden centred around a magical tree (the pole) wherein live the first people
-a trial/mourning period of 40 days and 40 nights once every 40 years (re-synchronisation of the 40 year Venus cycle with the leap years and solar cycle)
-3 days in the underworld before resurrection/rebirth at the summer equinox (Easter)
-a sun god born on the 25th of December (or 4 days after the winter solstice)
-divine annunciations by the planet Mercury (or an angel/god representing it) to the planet Venus (or a divine virgin or 13th disciple representing it)

These patterns are well researched, and best understood as astrological metaphors.

Don't be afraid, look it up.


The Luke

We have. And we've taken this foolishness of yours apart TIME AND TIME AND TIME AGAIN!!!

For some reason, you think repeating this stupidity makes it more accurate than the last few dozen times you've coughed up this slapstick comedy.

Alas, it is not.

Butterbean

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #33 on: April 06, 2010, 07:36:53 AM »
Luke, good for you for posting scripture!  But do you see the problem when you don't post the full scripture as MCWAY showed?  It can change the whole meaning.  Plus prefacing a section of text w/a misleading "title" is pretty lame too...I know you didn't do it, but the site did.

Do you read MCWAY's commentaries?  They really are helpful and very informative to show what the scripture is actually saying. 

Do you also realize a site called evilbible is going to probably skew items toward making you think the bible is evil LOL?

I wish you would consider MCWAY'S commentaries....and not just embrace misleading stuff from a site that does not promote objectivity.   :(



When you get a chance can you post some of the stuff from the Koran regarding the treatment of women?  Thanks.

R

MCWAY

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #34 on: April 06, 2010, 08:57:30 AM »
Luke, good for you for posting scripture!  But do you see the problem when you don't post the full scripture as MCWAY showed?  It can change the whole meaning.  Plus prefacing a section of text w/a misleading "title" is pretty lame too...I know you didn't do it, but the site did.

Do you read MCWAY's commentaries?  They really are helpful and very informative to show what the scripture is actually saying.  

Do you also realize a site called evilbible is going to probably skew items toward making you think the bible is evil LOL?

I wish you would consider MCWAY'S commentaries....and not just embrace misleading stuff from a site that does not promote objectivity.   :(



When you get a chance can you post some of the stuff from the Koran regarding the treatment of women?  Thanks.



Although I updated it on the original post, here's a little more insight as to that whole Midianite women thing:



The Midianite women weren't innocent bystanders in this issue. Per orders from their king, they seduced the men of Israel. This was done DELIBERATELY, because Baalam, a traitor and rogue prophet, told the Midianite king that the only way his armies could defeat Israelites was if God lifted His protection from them.

The Moabites were in cohoots with the Midianites, as well. And their women also participated in this seduction.

Num. 22:1-7

And the children of Israel set forward, and pitched in the plains of Moab on this side Jordan by Jericho. And Balak the son of Zippor saw all that Israel had done to the Amorites.  And Moab was sore afraid of the people, because they were many: and Moab was distressed because of the children of Israel.  


And Moab said unto the elders of Midian, "Now shall this company lick up all that are round about us, as the ox licketh up the grass of the field." And Balak the son of Zippor was king of the Moabites at that time.  He sent messengers therefore unto Balaam the son of Beor to Pethor, which is by the river of the land of the children of his people, to call him, saying, "Behold, there is a people come out from Egypt: behold, they cover the face of the earth, and they abide over against me.

Come now therefore, I pray thee, curse me this people; for they are too mighty for me:
peradventure I shall prevail, that we may smite them, and that I may drive them out of the land: for I wot that he whom thou blessest is blessed, and he whom thou cursest is cursed."


And the elders of Moab and the elders of Midian departed with the rewards of divination in their hand; and they came unto Balaam, and spake unto him the words of Balak.
 

The Moabites knew what happened to the Egyptians. And, if they tried to mess with Israel, they would suffer the same fate. Hence, that's the reason they hired Balaam to CURSE Israel. But, he couldn't do it. Therefore, they had to find another way to get Israel away from God's protection.

The short answer was IDOLATRY. And what better way to get the Israelites to do that than with the Moabites/Midianites sexual rituals in worshipping their deities?


Num. 25:1-3:

And Israel abode in Shittim, and the people began to commit whoredom with the daughters of Moab. And they called the people unto the sacrifices of their gods: and the people did eat, and bowed down to their gods. And Israel joined himself unto Baalpeor: and the anger of the LORD was kindled against Israel.  


Now, why would there need to be any raping of the Midianite and Moabite women, when they were giving it up freely, to entice the Israelites to worship their gods and turn their backs on the Lord?

The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #35 on: April 06, 2010, 02:31:14 PM »
Luke, good for you for posting scripture!  But do you see the problem when you don't post the full scripture as MCWAY showed?  It can change the whole meaning.  Plus prefacing a section of text w/a misleading "title" is pretty lame too...I know you didn't do it, but the site did.

Do you read MCWAY's commentaries?  They really are helpful and very informative to show what the scripture is actually saying. 

Do you also realize a site called evilbible is going to probably skew items toward making you think the bible is evil LOL?

I wish you would consider MCWAY'S commentaries....and not just embrace misleading stuff from a site that does not promote objectivity.   :(

When you get a chance can you post some of the stuff from the Koran regarding the treatment of women?  Thanks.

I don't understand the controversy here, when you compare Shariah Law and Mosaic Law side by side there's precious little difference:
-kill worshippers of other gods... check
-kill gays... check
-brutalise women... check
-capital punishment for minor offences... check
-kill people from other tribes... check
-kill blasphemers... check
-take slaves... check

What's the difference?


The Luke

MCWAY

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #36 on: April 06, 2010, 05:55:59 PM »
I don't understand the controversy here, when you compare Shariah Law and Mosaic Law side by side there's precious little difference:
-kill worshippers of other gods... check
-kill gays... check
-brutalise women... check
-capital punishment for minor offences... check
-kill people from other tribes... check
-kill blasphemers... check
-take slaves... check

What's the difference?


The Luke

The difference is simple (which are the most difficult for you at times):

Kill worshippers of other gods.....YEP!!  (when they engage in perverted, disease-spreading sexual rituals and human sacrifice)

Kill gays...see above!!

Brutalize women (by giving them the benefit of the doubt, protecting them from financial ruin, and putting abusers of women TO DEATH)...NOPE!!

Capatial punishment for minor offenses..since you are in no position to define minor or major offenses, this quip is basically moot.

Kill blasphemers...see the other gods routine!

Take slaves....NOPE!!! Chattle slavery was barred. Other forms of servitude is based on financial situations or debt repaying or other legal issues.

Notwithstanding how much you wish to lament for those poor worshippers of Molech and Dagon to barbecue their children and spread disease left and right,  take STella's advice and do some more reading, before posting such silliness.

Butterbean

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #37 on: April 07, 2010, 07:03:17 AM »

Now, why would there need to be any raping of the Midianite and Moabite women, when they were giving it up freely, to entice the Israelites to worship their gods and turn their backs on the Lord?

Thanks for making this point even clearer!  You would be a great teacher.





I don't understand the controversy here, when you compare Shariah Law and Mosaic Law side by side there's precious little difference:
-kill worshippers of other gods... check
-kill gays... check
-brutalise women... check
-capital punishment for minor offences... check
-kill people from other tribes... check
-kill blasphemers... check
-take slaves... check

What's the difference?


The Luke

After seeing you had posted some scriptures from the bible re: the OT treatment of women, I thought you were going to post some stuff from the Koran about the treatment of women?





He writes blatant lies; blatant propaganda; deliberate Orwellian doublespeak... "The laws of Israel were FAR MORE FAVOURABLE to women than those of the Koran are or ever were." ...I could copy and paste pages of scripture to counter such an assertion, but I know that every educated person reading his gibberish sees through it.



I have a Qu'ran where I could look stuff up if you can direct me to the text...or if there is a type of link like biblegateway.com only for a Koran could you post it?  Thanks.









R

The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #38 on: April 07, 2010, 08:01:39 AM »
I have a Qu'ran where I could look stuff up if you can direct me to the text...or if there is a type of link like biblegateway.com only for a Koran could you post it?  Thanks.


...I don't see the point Stella, seems you only want to hear McWay's apologist fatasies.

Maybe you should read that Koran yourself, you might notice some similarities between your fellow fundamentalist Christians and your fellow fundamentalist Muslims.


The Luke

MCWAY

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #39 on: April 07, 2010, 08:12:59 AM »

...I don't see the point Stella, seems you only want to hear McWay's apologist fatasies.

Maybe you should read that Koran yourself, you might notice some similarities between your fellow fundamentalist Christians and your fellow fundamentalist Muslims.


The Luke

In other words, you can't back up all that smack. You'll excuse me if I don't faint from shock.

Nor, can you counter what you claim to be my "apologist fantasies".

Again, why would there need to be any raping of the Midianite and Moabite women, when they were giving it up freely, to entice the Israelites to worship their gods and turn their backs on the Lord (hence the reason judgment came down on them, the Israelites and the Midianites)?

More importantly, WHY DID YOU BLATANTLY LIE by citing Deu. 22:23-24 that rape victims were put to death under OT law, DELIBERATEDLY OMITTING the very next verse which states that ONLY THE RAPIST was executed?

The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #40 on: April 07, 2010, 08:13:46 AM »
In other words, you can't back up all that smack. You'll excuse me if I don't faint from shock.

Nor, can you counter what you claim to be my "apologist fantasies".

What can I post?

You can't read.



The Luke

MCWAY

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #41 on: April 07, 2010, 08:18:17 AM »
What can I post?

You can't read.



The Luke

Oh I can!! And, since you didn't catch my latest update.....

Why would there need to be any raping of the Midianite and Moabite women, when they were giving it up freely, to entice the Israelites to worship their gods and turn their backs on the Lord (hence the reason judgment came down on them, the Israelites and the Midianites)?

More importantly, WHY DID YOU BLATANTLY LIE by citing Deu. 22:23-24 that rape victims were put to death under OT law, DELIBERATEDLY OMITTING the very next verse which states that ONLY THE RAPIST was executed?

The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #42 on: April 07, 2010, 09:53:35 AM »
McWay,


This is why I'm the only person willing to engage with you, your deliberately selective reading comprehension... and you're wearing even my patience pretty thin.


Let's look at the entire passage so context is no longer an issue.
It's basically a short canon of sexual morals, with the final chapters dealing specifically with sex crimes. I've even used a couple of translations that back away from the use of the word "rape", so I'm being as fair as possible...

22:22  If a man be found lying with a woman married to an husband, then they shall both of them die, both the man that lay with the woman, and the woman: so shalt thou put away evil from Israel.

...assuming we're not talking about rape, but consensual sex, that still dictates DEATH FOR ADULTERERS.



22:23 If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her;
22:24 Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour's wife: so thou shalt put away evil from among you.


...this does seem to refer to rape, but giving the benefit of the doubt, let's assume this is once again a simple act of consensual adultery, then it dictates DEATH FOR ADULTERY. The only difference being that a woman cannot claim she was raped if she was inside the city at the time of the rape/adultery.

Now think about this, it's not too difficult to figure the three possible scenarios:

1-It was an act of consensual adultery... then the verse DICTATES DEATH FOR BOTH ADULTERERS (which is
consistent with the previous verse)

2-It was actually a rape and the woman wasn't able to alert anyone; the rapist used force/violence/threat to silence her... then the verse dictates death for the rapist, and DEATH FOR THE RAPED WOMAN just in case it was an act of consensual adultery

3-There is another scenario... a much more disturbing one... bare with me:

Say a thirteen year-old girl is sold as a sex-slave/wife to an elderly man (in accordance ith Jewish custom of the time). He gets old... she gets lonely... at 16 she meets a nice 16-year-old boy... they fall in love... they meet in secret and promise to marry just as soon as her doddery old impotent husband dies... but one night, while renewing their clandestine promise, hormones get the better of them as so often happens with besotted immature teenagers.

 But they get caught.

Realising that he is facing death by stoning for adultery, the 16-year-old boy lies... he claims he raped the girl, hoping to spare her from stoning and let her off scot-free... a selfless lie for love.

The Council of City Elders has to deliberate.
Should they let the girl go and only stone the boy to death as a rapist, or should they stone both of them as adulterers...? ...no one is sure what to do. So they consult Deuteronomy.
Tough shit... no one heard her cry out... so BOTH ARE STONED TO DEATH FOR ADULTERY.  


Guess this rule must have been very tough for women whose only neighbour was deaf... anyone could rape them with impunity; if they reported it they'd be stoned alongside their attacker.



22:25 But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die.
25:27 If a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die ... For he found her in the field, and the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her.If a woman is raped in the country, then only the man shall die (since there was no one to hear her if she cried out.)
22:26 But unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing; there is in the damsel no sin worthy of death: for as when a man riseth against his neighbour, and slayeth him, even so is this matter:
22:27 For he found her in the field, and the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her.


...even this passage (both translations above) doesn't mean what you think it means. It could be that this was another example of the situation above.    

It merely asserts a man's property rights over his wife/bethrothed... it DOES NOT dictate death for ALL rape (as you insist), only death for the rape of another man's wife/betrothed. There is no protection for unbethrothed women in this passage.



22:28-29
If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found; Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife.
If a man rapes an unbetrothed virgin, he must pay her father 50 shekels of silver and then marry her.
22:29 Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.

...read that carefully. It says that rapists only receive the death penalty if the victim is not betrothed.

If you rape a woman who is someone else's property you are put to death... but if she isn't promised as property to someone else... well then it's just a fine to her default owner (her father) and a financially binding settlement of care.

It does NOT stipulate that there be some sort of sexless marriage-in-name-only arrangement as you claim, that is pure apologist fantasy

But consider what it does allow:
-men who can afford it can rape any unbethrothed girl they want with impunity
-the rape victims can be forced into a loveless marriage at best and a form of sex slavery at worst (assuming her father enforces such)


Now imagine the situation wherein a rich man rapes an unbethrothed CHILD (because girls are bethrothed at thirteen in this society, an "unbethrothed maiden" is a girl younger than 13), but offers to pay the fine.

If her father is poor, he must accept the settlement as he cannot afford to take care of a girl who now cannot be married off to anyone else (being no longer a virgin).

If her father demands retribution for the rape... well, tough luck, capital punishment for rape only extends to bethrothed girls.

If her father accepts the settlement, either the girl is forced into a loveless marriage/sex-savery with her rapist (taking the literal meaning) or she lives with her parents receiving a regular subsistence payment from her rapist; a continuous frequent reminder of why she cannot ever get married; why she cannot ever have children; cannot ever have consensual sex.


Imagine a girl wo is raped at twelve (before she was bethrothed), who then goes about her life with her compensation package... at some point she decides she wants to marry.

She asks the City Elders if she can marry... they consult Deutronomy... tough shit. By law, she is maried for life to her rapist (the guy in the next town over who pays her a stipend: assuming your apologist fantasy scenario) with no possibility of divorce.    

She can't marry... because she is already legally married (to her rapist).

She can't divorce... because women can't really apply for divorce... and because her husband cannot divorce her.

She can't remarry freely... when her rapist eventally dies, she must marry his brother and have a kid with him ("be redeemed") or face starving to death.

She can't remarry even if her rapist dies and isn't survived by any brothers... because she isn't a virgin and only virgins can marry.

She can't have cosensual sex with an unbehrothed man... because that would shame her father and be a capital crime for both her and the man involved.

She can't ever have children... unless she has them with her rapist.

She can't ever have sex of any sort... unless she has it with her rapist, or maybe one of his brothers should he die.



But here's the real kicker... what happens if her rapist rapes her again?

Nothing... he can legally rape her as often as he wants... she's his property.


DEATH for adultery.
DEATH for fornication.
DEATH for gays.
SEX SLAVERY (or lives of loveless misery) for rape victims.

...but moneray fines and ownership of their victim for child rapists. WTF?  

Anyone who defends this bullshit is clinically insane.



The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #43 on: April 07, 2010, 11:46:03 AM »
McWay,


This is why I'm the only person willing to engage with you, your deliberately selective reading comprehension... and you're wearing even my patience pretty thin.


Let's look at the entire passage so context is no longer an issue.
It's basically a short canon of sexual morals, with the final chapters dealing specifically with sex crimes. I've even used a couple of translations that back away from the use of the word "rape", so I'm being as fair as possible...

22:22  If a man be found lying with a woman married to an husband, then they shall both of them die, both the man that lay with the woman, and the woman: so shalt thou put away evil from Israel.

...assuming we're not talking about rape, but consensual sex, that still dictates DEATH FOR ADULTERERS.

And, this is a problem, because.........

It appears you forget the serious ramifications that adultery carried in the ancient Near Eastern World. You may think it's something petty. But, they did not, for good reasons.


22:23 If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her;
22:24 Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour's wife: so thou shalt put away evil from among you.


...this does seem to refer to rape, but giving the benefit of the doubt, let's assume this is once again a simple act of consensual adultery, then it dictates DEATH FOR ADULTERY. The only difference being that a woman cannot claim she was raped if she was inside the city at the time of the rape/adultery.

That's ridiculous. A woman who's been raped, more often than not, would have visible signs of such.


Now think about this, it's not too difficult to figure the three possible scenarios:

1-It was an act of consensual adultery... then the verse DICTATES DEATH FOR BOTH ADULTERERS (which is
consistent with the previous verse)

2-It was actually a rape and the woman wasn't able to alert anyone; the rapist used force/violence/threat to silence her... then the verse dictates death for the rapist, and DEATH FOR THE RAPED WOMAN just in case it was an act of consensual adultery

3-There is another scenario... a much more disturbing one... bare with me:

Say a thirteen year-old girl is sold as a sex-slave/wife to an elderly man (in accordance ith Jewish custom of the time). He gets old... she gets lonely... at 16 she meets a nice 16-year-old boy... they fall in love... they meet in secret and promise to marry just as soon as her doddery old impotent husband dies... but one night, while renewing their clandestine promise, hormones get the better of them as so often happens with besotted immature teenagers.

 But they get caught.


Notwithstanding your feeble attempt to piece together an unlikely scenario, that's adultery, which means both get put to death, end of story.

Scenario 2, the woman is given the benefit of the doubt, especially with physical signs of force. Therefore, the rapist ALONE gets exectued.


Realising that he is facing death by stoning for adultery, the 16-year-old boy lies... he claims he raped the girl, hoping to spare her from stoning and let her off scot-free... a selfless lie for love.

Condoning lying again, and now adultery? I thought you were the one with the supposedly superior morals.


The Council of City Elders has to deliberate.
Should they let the girl go and only stone the boy to death as a rapist, or should they stone both of them as adulterers...? ...no one is sure what to do. So they consult Deuteronomy.
Tough shit... no one heard her cry out... so BOTH ARE STONED TO DEATH FOR ADULTERY.  


Guess this rule must have been very tough for women whose only neighbour was deaf... anyone could rape them with impunity; if they reported it they'd be stoned alongside their attacker.

Yet another ridiculous and highly unlikely scenario, you try to make to make your feeble take stick.



22:25 But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die.
25:27 If a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die ... For he found her in the field, and the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her.If a woman is raped in the country, then only the man shall die (since there was no one to hear her if she cried out.)
22:26 But unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing; there is in the damsel no sin worthy of death: for as when a man riseth against his neighbour, and slayeth him, even so is this matter:
22:27 For he found her in the field, and the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her.


...even this passage (both translations above) doesn't mean what you think it means. It could be that this was another example of the situation above.

It means that your claim that rape victims got put to death was supremely false.

   

It merely asserts a man's property rights over his wife/bethrothed... it DOES NOT dictate death for ALL rape (as you insist), only death for the rape of another man's wife/betrothed. There is no protection for unbethrothed women in this passage.

Earth to Luke, I never claimed that it meant death for all rape. In fact, I explained some time ago that, for non-betrothed women, their care is the ONLY REASON the rapist is kept alive.



22:28-29
If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found; Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife.
If a man rapes an unbetrothed virgin, he must pay her father 50 shekels of silver and then marry her.
22:29 Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.

...read that carefully. It says that rapists only receive the death penalty if the victim is not betrothed.

I know that, genius!! Again, I'M THE ONE, who pointed out that material care for the woman was the SOLE impetus for sparing her assailant.

That still doesn't save your silly behind from the fact that you INTENTIONALLY make a false statement about rape victims being put to death.


If you rape a woman who is someone else's property you are put to death... but if she isn't promised as property to someone else... well then it's just a fine to her default owner (her father) and a financially binding settlement of care.


It does NOT stipulate that there be some sort of sexless marriage-in-name-only arrangement as you claim, that is pure apologist fantasy

Wrong!!! First, the marriage doesn't even have to take place. Second, the stipulations are that the rapist provide for her food, clothing, and lodging.


Third, in ancient Israel, the betrothment is effectively the marriage (which is why betrothed women, who screw around are charged with adultery). But, there's a GAP between betrothment and the wedding ceremony, which lasts AT LEAST a year. During that time the broom-to-be CANNOT have sex with his prospective wife.

One extreme example is Rachel, who was betrothed to Jacob. He worked 14 YEARS to pay her dowry. But, he couldn't touch her, until his servitude was completed.





But consider what it does allow:
-men who can afford it can rape any unbethrothed girl they want with impunity
-the rape victims can be forced into a loveless marriage at best and a form of sex slavery at worst (assuming her father enforces such)

DEAD WRONG, yet again, Luke. If a marriage can be "loveless", then it's safe to say it can be sexless, especially if they are living in separate homes (as is often the case today with separated couples, that are STILL legally married).

Your futile attempts to paint this as some form of sex slavery have been thoroughly dismantled, yet again.



Now imagine the situation wherein a rich man rapes an unbethrothed CHILD (because girls are bethrothed at thirteen in this society, an "unbethrothed maiden" is a girl younger than 13), but offers to pay the fine.

Then, that would be tanamount to what we call today statutory RAPE. Guess what that means for the assailant......DEATH!!!! Marriage to children (i.e. girls not of marrying age) is forbidden.


If her father is poor, he must accept the settlement as he cannot afford to take care of a girl who now cannot be married off to anyone else (being no longer a virgin).

Says who? The rapist would be put to DEATH. Therefore, (albeit at, perhaps, a lower dowry), the young lady can be married, when she reaches proper age.


If her father demands retribution for the rape... well, tough luck, capital punishment for rape only extends to bethrothed girls.


If her father accepts the settlement, either the girl is forced into a loveless marriage/sex-savery with her rapist (taking the literal meaning) or she lives with her parents receiving a regular subsistence payment from her rapist; a continuous frequent reminder of why she cannot ever get married; why she cannot ever have children; cannot ever have consensual sex.

The priority here is her material care, her emotional well-being (while considered) comes secondary.

There is NO marriage for an underage girl to her assailant.

Raping girls, at the very least, would fall under those abominations that Israel's neighbors did, which was barred, and punishable BY DEATH!!!

Plus, by your scenario, there are but two punishments for rape:

But, since underage girls can't get married, guess what's left for the rapist............DEATH!!!


Imagine a girl wo is raped at twelve (before she was bethrothed), who then goes about her life with her compensation package... at some point she decides she wants to marry.

She asks the City Elders if she can marry... they consult Deutronomy... tough shit. By law, she is maried for life to her rapist (the guy in the next town over who pays her a stipend: assuming your apologist fantasy scenario) with no possibility of divorce.    

She can't marry... because she is already legally married (to her rapist).

She can't divorce... because women can't really apply for divorce... and because her husband cannot divorce her.

She can't remarry freely... when her rapist eventally dies, she must marry his brother and have a kid with him ("be redeemed") or face starving to death.

She can't remarry even if her rapist dies and isn't survived by any brothers... because she isn't a virgin and only virgins can marry.

She can't have cosensual sex with an unbehrothed man... because that would shame her father and be a capital crime for both her and the man involved.

She can't ever have children... unless she has them with her rapist.

She can't ever have sex of any sort... unless she has it with her rapist, or maybe one of his brothers should he die.


But here's the real kicker... what happens if her rapist rapes her again?

Nothing... he can legally rape her as often as he wants... she's his property.

Not quite!!! He was spared, only to ensure that the woman has given material care. But, the dowry's already been paid. And, since the Lord stated explicitly that Israel was not to deal treacherously with their wives, guess what punishment is left for the rapist (now twice convicted).......


DEATH for adultery.
DEATH for fornication.
DEATH for gays.
SEX SLAVERY (or lives of loveless misery) for rape victims.

...but moneray fines and ownership of their victim for child rapists. WTF?  

Anyone who defends this bullshit is clinically insane.



The Luke

The only BS here is this rock-headed scenario you just painted. The laws of marriage apply to ADULT WOMEN (or at least, women of proper marrying age). Any rape of an underage girl would result in but ONE punishment for the assailant, DEATH!!!

Once again, when your initial and utterly ridiculous claims get taken apart, you resort to concocting some gibberish that's even more assinine, in a futile attempt to save face.


The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #44 on: April 07, 2010, 02:33:19 PM »
Notwithstanding your feeble attempt to piece together an unlikely scenario, that's adultery, which means both get put to death, end of story.

...and this thinking makes you different from modern day Muslim fundamentalists, how?

I rest my case.


The Luke

MCWAY

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #45 on: April 08, 2010, 06:09:05 AM »
...and this thinking makes you different from modern day Muslim fundamentalists, how?

I rest my case.


The Luke

You erroneously tried to paint that particular scenario as an example of rape, to support your false claim that rape victims were put to death. That is simply NOT the case, as has been shown to you REPEATEDLY.

This issue was about Mosaic law being essentially Shariah law (which simply isn't the case at all), not your whimpering about laws not allowing people to screw around, spreading disease and dysfunction, and go unpunished.

Of course, that would lead one to ask, exactly what should be done with folks who commited such acts, endangering themselves, their families, and their countries?






The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #46 on: April 08, 2010, 07:51:54 AM »
You erroneously tried to paint that particular scenario as an example of rape, to support your false claim that rape victims were put to death. That is simply NOT the case, as has been shown to you REPEATEDLY.

This issue was about Mosaic law being essentially Shariah law (which simply isn't the case at all), not your whimpering about laws not allowing people to screw around, spreading disease and dysfunction, and go unpunished.

Of course, that would lead one to ask, exactly what should be done with folks who commited such acts, endangering themselves, their families, and their countries?

Eh... what about education?

Why is Yahweh always ordering the deaths of people who have committed no real crime?

Death for adulterers; it doesn't say anything about whether the married people involved were in arranged marriages... or unhappy marriages... or abusive marriages... just plain old kill kill kill: no exceptions.

Is adultery still wrong if it refers to a woman who was sold into sex-slavery at a young age to a much older man? What if either the wife/husband was asexual; impotent or otherwise uninterested/unable sexually... and gave permission for the other party to seek sex elsewhere?

Why is this divine being so capricious and unyielding in his decrees?

Death for gays? Why? Because they spread disease? Even monogamous gays?


Why does this all-knowing thundercloud never tell his people: "Wash your hands!" "Wash your privates!" "Arranged marriages cause suffering!"


Instead we get all this bullshit about:
-menstruating women having to sleep outside the city walls; (where the smell of blood attracts wolves, bears and lions)
-no work on Sunday; (enforced to the point that children can't even play or climb trees)
-no eating shellfish; (no list of which species are affected by the Red Tide organism; just a simplistic blanket ban)
-don't plough your field using an ox and an ass at the same time; (why not?)

Aren't these ridiculous blanket simplifications proof positive that this god; this angry Old Testament thundercloud is the product of man's imagination?


McWay, watch one of those documentaries about Afghanistan under the Taliban.

Watch a family of women weeping because their father has died and the only person who is willing to take them in or feed them is a 65 year-old neighbour who insists upon marrying their 11 year-old daughter as recompense. Or a starving homeless child being stoned to death for stealing an apple.


Shariah Law and Old Testament Law are the same thing... there is no meaningful difference.

You keep claiming there is... but you can't find an example.

Face it; Moses and his canon of bullshit rules is NO DIFFERENT THAN THE TALIBAN.


The Luke

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #47 on: April 08, 2010, 08:07:14 AM »
McWay,


This is why I'm the only person willing to engage with you, your deliberately selective reading comprehension... and you're wearing even my patience pretty thin.

The Luke

I just don't have the time for much posting, other than posting the odd one or two sentence reply. I don't mind chatting/debating/arguing with mcway, but I agree with the selective reading/comprehension part. His constant references to Hitler, who was more than likely a deranged theist not an atheist, and his misunderstanding/misinterpretation of the nature and evolutions of morals, as per the video I posted in another thread, are fairly annoying.

I don't participate in debates regarding details of the bible for the most part because there is zero proof any gods exist, much less the hands-on god of the bible. The logical conclusion is that all religious texts are constructs of the human mind and nothing more until proved otherwise.
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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #48 on: April 08, 2010, 08:18:40 AM »
Eh... what about education?

Education on what, "How to screw around on your wife/husband"? "VD and me"?

The education is simple: You avoid engaging in behavior that spread disease; you avoid disease. You avoid engaging in behavior that causes dysfunction; you avoid dysfunction.


Why is Yahweh always ordering the deaths of people who have committed no real crime?

I missed the memo that declared YOU the arbitrator as to what's a "real crime" and what is not.


Death for adulterers; it doesn't say anything about whether the married people involved were in arranged marriages... or unhappy marriages... or abusive marriages... just plain old kill kill kill: no exceptions.

First, arranged marriages were how it was done, because the primary issue is BEING ABLE TO PROVIDE FOR A FAMILY, not merely being driven on emotion.

Your "plain old kill kill kill" line is a card-carrying display of your laughable Biblical ignorance.


Is adultery still wrong if it refers to a woman who was sold into sex-slavery at a young age to a much older man? What if either the wife/husband was asexual; impotent or otherwise uninterested/unable sexually... and gave permission for the other party to seek sex elsewhere?

Yep!! Next question!!!


Why is this divine being so capricious and unyielding in his decrees?

Death for gays? Why? Because they spread disease? Even monogamous gays?

Yep!!! As for "monogamous gays", that's the equivalent of a thief robbing the same 7-11 store repeatedly. The act is wrong, regardless of how many entities are involved.



Why does this all-knowing thundercloud never tell his people: "Wash your hands!" "Wash your privates!" "Arranged marriages cause suffering!"

Once again, you've shown that you have little clue as to what you speak.

The hygiene laws of the Israelites are spelled out in the book of Leviticus (I guess the "EvilBible" folks didn't tell you about that one). Or, you (in foolhardy haste) simply didn't read it.

As for your flap about arrange marriages....

Abraham arranged the marriage of his son, Isaac, to Rebekah.

Gen. 24:64-67

And Rebekah lifted up her eyes, and when she saw Isaac, she lighted off the camel.  

For she had said unto the servant, What man is this that walketh in the field to meet us? And the servant [had] said, It is my master: therefore she took a vail, and covered herself.  

And the servant told Isaac all things that he had done.  

And Isaac brought her into his mother Sarah's tent, and took Rebekah, and she became his wife; and he loved her: and Isaac was comforted after his mother's death.  


Isaac and Rebekah were pretty happy, from all accounts. Same goes for Ruth and Boaz.

Arranged marriages DO NOT EQUATE to loveless ones. Therefore, another pitiful claim of yours bites the dust.




Instead we get all this bullshit about:
-menstruating women having to sleep outside the city walls; (where the smell of blood attracts wolves, bears and lions)
-no work on Sunday; (enforced to the point that children can't even play or climb trees)
-no eating shellfish; (no list of which species are affected by the Red Tide organism; just a simplistic blanket ban)
-don't plough your field using an ox and an ass at the same time; (why not?)

Aren't these ridiculous blanket simplifications proof positive that this god; this angry Old Testament thundercloud is the product of man's imagination?

Nope!! One, the mensturating women thing is about HYGIENE (Weren't you just complaining about the Israelites not being told about such?).

Two, the others are dietary and other laws, to maximize health and happiness among Israel's ranks.



McWay, watch one of those documentaries about Afghanistan under the Taliban.

Watch a family of women weeping because their father has died and the only person who is willing to take them in or feed them is a 65 year-old neighbour who insists upon marrying their 11 year-old daughter as recompense. Or a starving homeless child being stoned to death for stealing an apple.


Shariah Law and Old Testament Law are the same thing... there is no meaningful difference.

You keep claiming there is... but you can't find an example.

Face it; Moses and his canon of bullshit rules is NO DIFFERENT THAN THE TALIBAN.


The Luke

What you can't quite get through that skull of yours is that the Mosaic law is hardly Shariah law, despite your repeatedly stupid claims to the contrary.

As for your Taliban example, your lack of reading ability pops up again.

Stealing isn't a capital offense. And, the laws of Moses make it clear that, among other things, "When thou cuttest down thine harvest in thy field, and hast forgot a sheaf in the field, thou shalt not go again to fetch it: it shall be for the stranger, for the fatherless, and for the widow: that the LORD thy God may bless thee in all the work of thine hands."

And "Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt." ; Along with "Ye shall not afflict any widow, or fatherless child. If thou afflict them in any wise, and they cry at all unto me, I will surely hear their cry; And my wrath shall wax hot, and I will kill you with the sword; and your wives shall be widows, and your children fatherless."  

The provisions are clear as to how Israel was to care for the orphans, widows, and those who are destitute. And, it does NOT involve that foolishness you just cited.

As far as that marriage scenario goes, such would NOT occur under Mosaic law. One, the first priority would be to have other members of their family take them into their care.

Two, the women would have the option of going to the temple and dedicating themselves there.

Third, no 65-year-old would be marrying an eleven-year-old girl, as (1) that wasn't the proper marrying age, and (2) most ANE culture played by the first-in-first-out rule, regarding how the daughters got married.

You continue to make excuse and to justify misbehavior and be an irresponsible fool, without consequence. That's at the heart of all this bleating of yours.

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Re: Is Mosaic Law essentially Shariah Law?
« Reply #49 on: April 08, 2010, 08:32:28 AM »
I just don't have the time for much posting, other than posting the odd one or two sentence reply. I don't mind chatting/debating/arguing with mcway, but I agree with the selective reading/comprehension part. His constant references to Hitler, who was more than likely a deranged theist not an atheist, and his misunderstanding/misinterpretation of the nature and evolutions of morals, as per the video I posted in another thread, are fairly annoying.

See, any sensible person reading your posts would agree... you are just as warped and divorced from reality as the Taliban you aspire to live like..


The Luke