I can't access the study in bold at the moment. I'll need to see if I can get it somewhere else. The author here seems to be saying that necrosis does not cause DOMS and in turn, therefore prostaglandins can't be involved if I'm reading correctly?
I'm not sure how this conclusion was drawn, as the presence of prostaglandins does not always mean necrosis.
no no no, it says nothing about prostaglandins, it says there is no inflammation responce with doms, if there is no inflammation then there can't be prostagladins, because one of the effects of prostaglandins is inflammation.
did anyone read my post ?
