you ginger cookie, cause and effect exsists at the quantum level and i will show you why. you are dealing with a super intellect mind you

. it can be said that there are noprecisely measurable classical deterministic causes at the quantum level. but this is not hte same thing as saying there are no causes. as peter hodgsen notes(good book by the way) we may not be able to predict which atom is going to undergo radioactive decay in the case of each atome is driven by internal parameters eg the state of motinon of the necleons at a particular instant, and the quantum mechanical laws, this is eveidence for example i dont no lets say uranium and radiuum undergoing alpha decay cansistently turn into intermeidate isotopes nad then elements like lead, not puddles of water. the inability to ascertain the case of change does no tjustify the conclusion that the change has no cause.
im leading you down this trail of cause and effect so wait. grter hermann wroth the limits of preditive calculability of future events have indeed turned out to be in principle incalcuable. " yet there is no couse of events for which no causes could be found in the frameworkd of the quantum mechanical formalism". because " quantum mechanism presupposes and calls upon an explanation bases on natural law also for events which are not predictively calculable. "gapless causelity is not only consistent with quantum mechanism, but is demonstrably presupposed by it.
also, the nobel prize winner julius schwinger obs that both classical and quantum physics assume the law of cause and effect, since they both hold that knowledge of the state of a system at one time gives knowledge of its state at a later time. so follow me, in any case, the principle that every phenonmenon and event has an explanation is as fundamental in quantum physics as it is in the rest of physics, it is not simply a presupposition of science or a thesis to be proven, it is rather a condition that has to be accepted if we are to do science. like it or not, the quantum physicist cannot say anything about a quantum state taht is not implicitly an attempt to explain it. even to say that there are no causes at the quantum level is to give an explanation, albeit a mistaken one, for quantum phenomena. when bohr offered his principle onf complementarity, he was trying to explain quantum phenomean. it could be said that this was a description not an explantion, but then it was a description that sought to explain. all quantum experiments and fomalisms are attempts to explain quantum pheenomena. quantum theorists are often, in fact, driven by the search for symmetry. bizarre quantum phe like non-locality my be bizarre from the viewpoint of conventional science but the non locality experiments actually re-introduce causality. we do not understand how one photon affects the other at such distances but we do know that one has an effect on the other.
now cause and effect is actually a meta scientific priciple like you have eluded to. science cannot prove it;science simply operates on the assumptions that it is valid. in the einstein-copenhagen debate on measurement and causality, capenhagen had the right premise but the wrong conclusion. einstined adopted cop conclusion as his premise and reached an equally flawsd conclusion. from the premise that exact measurement is not possible at the quantum leverl(uncertinty principle), copenhagen concluede that the law focause and effect does not apply there. this process of reasoning is obciously flawed because the exsitence of cause and effect between two phenomena does not requie us to believe that this relationship can be demonstrated by the rules of classical physics. einsteing, on the other hand, stated off with the premise that there can be no caus and effect if there is no exact measurement and concluded that acceptance of indeterminacy at the quantum level eliminateds causality and objectivity. here he fell into the copenhagen trap becasue he took exact observation, measurement and prediction as criteria for cause and effet and reality.
adolf grunbaum who is an atheist observes that the so-called pair cration of a particle and antiparticle occures throught the conversion of other forms of energy, and he emphatically notes that this is not a creation out of nothing. the laws exsists to allow this to occur and i have already demostrated why there is truly has never been nothing, plus you cannot observe nothing. i have more if you like but i will save it but your argument has been put to bed and tucked in. also i would like you to read my thread in the metaphysics section at avant on this topic were i ask of any better arguments in history, it is the best answer. you are a weak minded atheist in the grand scheme of things and to deny god is to deny exsistence, however, is pantheism or theism correct is the question, i can show why pantheism is incorrect and theism is the one truth.
http://www.avantlabs.com/forum/index.php?showtopic=23897if have the right to deny anything i say but i wont listen, because you my friend have no more understanding of quanta then what google can supply and shit on reasoning when you say the quantum vaccum creates something out of nothing. i wont outline the argument but finite has never exsisted nor has nothing, to deny this is ignorant and i can suggest some reading if you like. i do enjoy having debates with you but your arguments are ridiculous and you have no idea what meta physics implies and how science rests on this matrix. your materialist view is totally ignorant. good night.