Author Topic: Does the Bible condone slavery?  (Read 32803 times)

OzmO

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #75 on: December 05, 2008, 07:18:13 AM »
Like what, for example?

Well not just this thread, also the other thread of Jesus and original stories.  

Are you asking what's been good up to this point or what's been a bunch of debate tactics?

I'll answer you in a bit,  have to go somewhere for a while.
Fucking hell...why is this shit still going on?

Because both sides answer questions or respond like polticians   ;D


loco

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #76 on: December 05, 2008, 07:19:07 AM »
Fucking hell...why is this shit still going on?

Then why do you keep coming back?  Are you a glutton for punishment?    :)

loco

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #77 on: December 05, 2008, 07:20:19 AM »
Well not just this thread, also the other thread of Jesus and original stories.  

Are you asking what's been good up to this point or what's been a bunch of debate tactics?

I'll answer you in a bit,  have to go somewhere for a while.
Because both sides answer questions or respond like polticians   ;D

Whatever this is, by your comments you seem to enjoy it.   :)

OzmO

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #78 on: December 05, 2008, 08:18:58 AM »
Whatever this is, by your comments you seem to enjoy it.   :)

I do.

Because think of it this way.   You know my position on these things.  I believe in God, but not the bible as the 100% WOG and accept my that my belief is based solely on faith and not scientific evidence.  Both sides represent opposite ends of the spectrum with me being somewhere in the middle.

The Luke

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #79 on: December 07, 2008, 08:38:58 AM »
Okay guys, sorry this is a little late, but I’ve been really busy lately… and schooling a bunch of fundies isn’t that high on my list of priorities. But I promised I would… and so I shall…


The topic under discussion was whether the Bible condones slavery… I have been arguing that it does, which I had thought was an opinion beyond reproach or discussion; as the Bible quite explicitly DOES condone slavery. Even Jesus never spoke out against the practice of slavery.

What I hadn’t expected were the underhanded tactics employed by Loco and McWay.
I didn’t think believing Christians would stoop so low as selective quotations and touch-feely new translations… so I’m afraid I’ll have actually go to trouble of making sourced and referenced quotes to back my position.



Does the Bible condone slavery?

Well, slaves are routinely referred to in lists of property throughout the Old Testament, that might give us a hint of how slaves were regarded… we should ask ourselves, would the “indentured servants” McWay insists Old Testament slaves actually were be regarded as property. Surely only chattel slaves were considered such:

Exodus 20:17:
"Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour’s house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbors wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor any thing that is thy neighbours."

Deuteronomy 5:21:
"Neither shalt thou desire thy neighbour’s wife, neither shalt thou covet thy neighbour’s house, his field, or his manservant, or his maidservant, his ox, or his ass, or any thing that is thy neighbours.”



Surely the employer of an indentured servant wouldn’t be permitted by holy edict to physically beat his slaves?

Exodus 21:26-27:
"And if a man smite the eye of his servant, or the eye of his maid, that it perish; he shall let him go free for his eye's sake. And if he smite out his manservant's tooth, or his maidservant's tooth; he shall let him go free for his tooth's sake."

…well, seemingly a slave owner was permitted to beat his slaves so long as he didn’t either knock out their teeth or blind them in either eye. Doesn’t sound like indentured servitude to me, any beating short of a maiming is considered acceptable?



But surely if these were indeed chattel slaves there would be evidence of slavemasters having the right to put their slaves to death?
Would laws detailing the circumstances of such punishment beatings be considered evidence of this?

Exodus 21:20-21:
"And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he die under his hand; he shall be surely punished. Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished: for they are his property."

…so you can beat your slaves as severely as you like, on condition that you don’t batter them to death on the spot.

If you beat your slave so badly that he dies a couple of days after the beating, then you go “unpunished”. What kind of rationale could explain this? Perhaps the fact that non-Hebrew slaves were considered chattel slaves and explicitly, legally a form of property (ie: no proper human rights).

How else can someone not be punished for beating someone to death because “they are his property”.



What about the terms of servitude?
McWay insists Old Testament slaves were indeed a form of "indentured servant" and were routinely set free with severance pay in the seventh year. This is true for certain Hebrew slaves (male Hebrew slaves):

Deuteronomy 15:12-18:
"And if thy brother, an Hebrew man, or an Hebrew woman, be sold unto thee, and serve thee six years; then in the seventh year thou shalt let him go free from thee. And when thou sendest him out free from thee, thou shalt not let him go away empty: Thou shalt furnish him liberally out of thy flock, and out of thy floor, and out of thy winepress: of that wherewith the Lord thy God hath blessed thee thou shalt give unto him."

But to extend such terms to describe ALL Old Testament slaves (as McWay does) is intellectually dishonest… for example, a slaves wife was considered the property of the slavemaster. But even more sinisterly, the infant children of such a freed slave were also considered the property of the slave master. Can a child be an “indentured servant”?

Exodus 21:1-4:
"If thou buy a Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing. If he came in by himself, he shall go out by himself: if he were married, then his wife shall go out with him. If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself."

Consider that. What type of employer demands that any children you bear while in their employ become the property of the employer… again, sounds like chattel slavery to me.



In fact, these “indentured servants” had so little in the way of human rights that they could be genitally mutilated on the whims of their masters:

Genesis 17:13:
"He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised: and my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant."

Genesis 17:27:
"And all the men of his house, born in the house, and bought with money of the stranger, were circumcised with him."



But even more dishonest than any of this, is the deliberate omission by Loco and McWay of the specific terms and conditions that applied to female slaves.

Female slaves were indeed slaves for life… chattel slaves:

Exodus 21:7:
"And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do."

Non-Hebrew slaves were considered chattel slaves whether male or female:

Leviticus 25:44-46:
"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."



My assertion that female slaves were chattel slaves subject to rape and sexual violence and legally disenfranchised of their right to their own sexual consent seems to have caused the most consternation. It is a pretty damning indictment… but I don’t understand why I am being Hectored to provide specifics on this. The Bible is replete with examples of such barbarity.

For example: female slaves could be raped… but only at the price of a sacrificed ram. (The female slave would be flogged, but could not be put to death because she was property):

Leviticus 19:20-22:
"And whosoever lieth carnally with a woman, that is a bondmaid, betrothed to a husband, and not at all redeemed, nor freedom given her; she shall be scourged; they shall not be put to death, because she was not free. And he shall bring his trespass offering unto the LORD, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, even a ram for a trespass offering. And the priest shall make an atonement for him with the ram of the trespass offering before the LORD for his sin which he hath done: and the sin which he hath done shall be forgiven him."

Women and children were routinely taken for chattel slaves as spoils of war:

Deuteronomy 20:14:
"But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself"

If a Hebrew man took a fancy to any female war captive, he could take her as a slave and try her out before deciding whether to keep her. It doesn’t really sound like indentured servitude if the employer has the right to rape the female staff members to decide whether he wants to keep them? Does it?
 
Deuteronomy 21:10-14:
"When thou goest forth to war against thine enemies, and the Lord thy God hath delivered them into thine hands, and thou hast taken them captive, And seest among the captives a beautiful woman, and hast a desire unto her, that thou wouldest have her to thy wife; Then thou shalt bring her home to thine house; and she shall shave her head, and pare her nails; And she shall put the raiment of her captivity from off her, and shall remain in thine house, and bewail her father and her mother a full month: and after that thou shalt go in unto her, and be her husband, and she shall be thy wife.

And it shall be, if thou have no delight in her, then thou shalt let her go whither she will; but thou shalt not sell her at all for money, thou shalt not make merchandise of her, because thou hast humbled her."

…this translation of “humbled” in this sexual context is another example of a softening translation. It should be translated as “...because thou hast raped her”. As it was translated for centuries.



In fact, female slaves had so little control over their own sexual consent that they could be handed over as sexual surrogates:

Genesis 16:1-2:
"Now Sarai Abram's wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar. And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the LORD hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai."

In fact, not only did female slaves not even have ownership over their own sexual consent (considered the property of their master) but their mistress had right of first refusal on any children she might have… it doesn’t sound much like “indentured servitude” when the employer can gift the employee as a sexual plaything then forcefully adopt any child she might conceive, does it?

Genesis 30:3-4:
"And she said, Behold my maid Bilhah, go in unto her; and she shall bear upon my knees, that I may also have children by her. And she gave him Bilhah her handmaid to wife: and Jacob went in unto her."

Genesis 30:9-10:
"When Leah saw that she had left bearing, she took Zilpah her maid, and gave her Jacob to wife. And Zilpah Leah's maid bare Jacob a son."


…so, in conclusion:

A non-Hebrew woman living in one of the cities destroyed by marauding Hebrew hoardes would have her husband and infant children slaughtered before her and might only be spared the same fate herself because one of the Hebrew soldiers took a fancy to her… this Hebrew soldier would then forcibly take her back to Israel as a hostage, where, having first suffered the ignominy of having her head shaved and nails clipped, she would be kept under house arrest for a month.

Once the month was up she would then be subject to an indeterminate period of rapings… nothing too severe, just the standard raping female slaves were subject to and possibly a beating if she displeased her master, but not so vicious a beating that she would lose either an eye or a tooth, and if she was beaten to death then it wouldn’t be a continuous savage beating that might kill her on the spot but possibly a beating from which she might die a couple of days later.

If she’s lucky, and her new Hebrew master is somewhat decent enough to be put off by the continuous rape on the threat of torture, then he might let her go.

Once set free she now has to somehow escape to her homeland without being captured by any of the Hebrews involved in the slave trade, if she is actually recaptured then sold as a standard slave she has no hope of ever being set free.

She is now the property of her new master and can be raped; beaten or gifted as a sexual plaything… on the threat of more savage beatings. Should she have children, her children can be taken/stolen from her and forcibly adopted by her master or mistress.

Any children not stolen in this manner will themselves be slaves for life, subject to the same beatings and sexual violence without any hope of reprieve. Male children will be forcibly circumcised in traditional Hebrew style: foreskin cut with a dull bronze blade and excess skin sucked off the penis by the priest with his mouth, despite the fact that such an operation is routinely fatal (up to 10% mortality rate) in a time before antibiotics... even more dangerous if the priest has any sort of STD or mouth infection.

All of this would be well within Hebrew Old Testament Mosaic Law.


Yep, sounds like "indentured servitude" to me... Morons.


I would ask that those reading this thread take the time to call McWay on his bullshit when he starts his apologist bullshit:
-claiming each quotation is an example of a special case
-quoting an apologist translation that exchanges "worker" for "slave/servant"
-picking apart the grammar
-quoting an obscure saying attributed to Jebus which might possibly repeal all Old Testament slavery laws

...thanks. He needs to know he's not winning anyone over.



The Luke

OzmO

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #80 on: December 07, 2008, 11:33:41 AM »
Quote
Leviticus 25:44-46:
"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."

"God" condoning and encouraging basic slavery.  About as black and white as you can get.

 ;D

The Luke

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #81 on: December 07, 2008, 11:47:19 AM »
"God" condoning and encouraging basic slavery.  About as black and white as you can get.

...go Luke!



The Luke

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #82 on: December 07, 2008, 12:13:12 PM »
We know that!! That isn't the issue, here. The issue (and the crux of this thread) is that there's a HUGE differences between the "slaves" of the OT and the chattel slaves (i.e. black people in USA/England) of relatively recent memory.


Why not?

Who told you that slavery is wrong? Why can’t you impose your will on someone, if you have the military/political might to do so?

If this is simply about the will of man, then you have no such thing as "inalienable" rights. If man can give something to someone; he can take that something away.

I rarely look at the board so I haven't checked this thread in a long time.

Are you really confused about whether slavery is wrong or not.  Do you really think "might makes right"?

You don't seem that dumb so all I can guess is that this just some gag on your part or some sort of weird performance art?




The Luke

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #83 on: December 07, 2008, 12:17:11 PM »
Straw Man,


McWay and Loco won't be back to this thread so don't expect and answer any time soon.

My long-winded essay above is essentially an end-of-thread post.



The Luke

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #84 on: December 07, 2008, 12:57:51 PM »
Straw Man,


McWay and Loco won't be back to this thread so don't expect and answer any time soon.

My long-winded essay above is essentially an end-of-thread post.



The Luke

meh...that's ok with me.  I haven't looked at the thread in a few weeks either.

I can't believe there would be anyone (christian or otherwise) who would be confused on the subject.  It seems it's always the ones who believe that a book written (and edited, redacted, mistranslated, etc..) by men is somehow the word of a god that have all the problems.

   





The Luke

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #85 on: December 07, 2008, 01:20:40 PM »
I can't believe there would be anyone (christian or otherwise) who would be confused on the subject.  It seems it's always the ones who believe that a book written (and edited, redacted, mistranslated, etc..) by men is somehow the word of a god that have all the problems.

...the problem on this board is that the fundies don't seem to realise when they are defending the indefensible or sparring far above their weight intellectually.

Loco, for example, has very poor reading comprehension... but then again, English isn't his first language.


I blame most of this on the apologist movement... these assholes are still questioning evolution for Christ's sake! But it's a dishonest discussion, they shout down their opponents then deem the eventual silence of their critics a victory for their simple-minded illogical quibbling.

What they fail to realise is that the academic community won't engage with them NOT because they can't... but because they deem these matters settled. Scientists don't want to discuss these topics because the faith-based anti-science camp's argument doesn't meet the standard necessary to warrant any attention at all.

If a 12 year-old still believes in the literal existence of Santa Claus, then an intervention is warranted... but no one will argue the existence of Santa with a four-year-old... or a 34 year-old.


The Luke

OzmO

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #86 on: December 07, 2008, 07:59:30 PM »
Straw Man,


McWay and Loco won't be back to this thread so don't expect and answer any time soon.

My long-winded essay above is essentially an end-of-thread post.



The Luke

I doubt that.  I'm interested to see their responses.

MCWAY

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #87 on: December 08, 2008, 05:54:53 AM »
Straw Man,


McWay and Loco won't be back to this thread so don't expect and answer any time soon.

My long-winded essay above is essentially an end-of-thread post.



The Luke


DEAD WRONG, as usual!! And to think, you delayed all this time, simply to post silliness like this!!

Okay guys, sorry this is a little late, but I’ve been really busy lately… and schooling a bunch of fundies isn’t that high on my list of priorities. But I promised I would… and so I shall…


The topic under discussion was whether the Bible condones slavery… I have been arguing that it does, which I had thought was an opinion beyond reproach or discussion; as the Bible quite explicitly DOES condone slavery. Even Jesus never spoke out against the practice of slavery.

What I hadn’t expected were the underhanded tactics employed by Loco and McWay.
I didn’t think believing Christians would stoop so low as selective quotations and touch-feely new translations… so I’m afraid I’ll have actually go to trouble of making sourced and referenced quotes to back my position.

First of all, I'm not using any "touchy-feely" new translations of the Bible. When quoting verses, I stated which version I used, which is usually the NASB or the KJV. If I use anything other than that, I make the indication that I do such. And, Loco ususally does the same.

Listen to what you just said, “I’m afraid I’ll havt to actually go to trouble of making sourced and referenced quotes to back my position”. Genius, that’s what you’re supposed to do. Instead, you resort to making claims out your behind, which makes refuting them that much easier.

And, the topic ALSO under discussion was “slavery” in OT times vs. “slavery” as we’ve come to know it (i.e. chattel slavery) and whether the two were one and the same. It clearly is not, for reasons mentioned multiple times, supported by multiple historical references.




Does the Bible condone slavery?

Well, slaves are routinely referred to in lists of property throughout the Old Testament, that might give us a hint of how slaves were regarded… we should ask ourselves, would the “indentured servants” McWay insists Old Testament slaves actually were be regarded as property. Surely only chattel slaves were considered such:

Exodus 20:17:
"Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour’s house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbors wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor any thing that is thy neighbours."

Deuteronomy 5:21:
"Neither shalt thou desire thy neighbour’s wife, neither shalt thou covet thy neighbour’s house, his field, or his manservant, or his maidservant, his ox, or his ass, or any thing that is thy neighbours.”

Nothing in either of those verses suggests that the manservants/maidservants in question are chattel slaves.


Surely the employer of an indentured servant wouldn’t be permitted by holy edict to physically beat his slaves?

Exodus 21:26-27:
"And if a man smite the eye of his servant, or the eye of his maid, that it perish; he shall let him go free for his eye's sake. And if he smite out his manservant's tooth, or his maidservant's tooth; he shall let him go free for his tooth's sake."

…well, seemingly a slave owner was permitted to beat his slaves so long as he didn’t either knock out their teeth or blind them in either eye. Doesn’t sound like indentured servitude to me, any beating short of a maiming is considered acceptable?

Ummmm…..genius, did you bother to read the tail end of that verse, he shall let him go free? Chattel slaves (i.e. black slaves in the USA) didn't get to go free AT ALL, no matter HOW SEVERELY they were beaten. BTW, husbands got beaten as well, if they slander the names of their wives. I guess that makes them “slaves” as well. The "tooth" and "eye" things appear to be examples of the severity of injury that would warrant a breach of contract, allowing a "slave" to go free. I doubt that those two cases were exhaustive.



But surely if these were indeed chattel slaves there would be evidence of slavemasters having the right to put their slaves to death?
Would laws detailing the circumstances of such punishment beatings be considered evidence of this?

Exodus 21:20-21:
"And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he die under his hand; he shall be surely punished. Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished: for they are his property."

…so you can beat your slaves as severely as you like, on condition that you don’t batter them to death on the spot.

If you beat your slave so badly that he dies a couple of days after the beating, then you go “unpunished”. What kind of rationale could explain this? Perhaps the fact that non-Hebrew slaves were considered chattel slaves and explicitly, legally a form of property (ie: no proper human rights).


How else can someone not be punished for beating someone to death because “they are his property”.

Chattel slaves could be beaten without ANY punishment, whatsoever, as was the case with black slaves in this country (USA). So, this spiel of yours basically holds little weight.



What about the terms of servitude?
McWay insists Old Testament slaves were indeed a form of "indentured servant" and were routinely set free with severance pay in the seventh year. This is true for certain Hebrew slaves (male Hebrew slaves):

Deuteronomy 15:12-18:
"And if thy brother, an Hebrew man, or an Hebrew woman, be sold unto thee, and serve thee six years; then in the seventh year thou shalt let him go free from thee. And when thou sendest him out free from thee, thou shalt not let him go away empty: Thou shalt furnish him liberally out of thy flock, and out of thy floor, and out of thy winepress: of that wherewith the Lord thy God hath blessed thee thou shalt give unto him."

But to extend such terms to describe ALL Old Testament slaves (as McWay does) is intellectually dishonest… for example, a slaves wife was considered the property of the slavemaster. But even more sinisterly, the infant children of such a freed slave were also considered the property of the slave master. Can a child be an “indentured servant”?

For some strange reason, you think foolish and false criesof my being “intellectually dishonest” can hide your visibly weak claims. I did not claim that ALL Old Testaments slaves fell under the 7-year rule. In fact, I posted information, specifically outline the guidelines for how non-Hebrews were treated in certain situations, something to the tune of “The Foreign Slave”. Try reading, for once, before you make such screwy accusations.

And, in true toe-munching Luke fashion, you put the kabosh to your own argument: And if thy brother, an Hebrew man, or an Hebrew woman, be sold unto thee, and serve thee six years; then in the seventh year thou shalt let him go free from thee.. In other words, Hebrew women were under the 7-year rule, too. OOPS!!!!


MCWAY

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #88 on: December 08, 2008, 07:49:02 AM »


Exodus 21:1-4:
"If thou buy a Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing. If he came in by himself, he shall go out by himself: if he were married, then his wife shall go out with him. If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself."

Consider that. What type of employer demands that any children you bear while in their employ become the property of the employer… again, sounds like chattel slavery to me.

Once again, the lack of “Hooked on Phonics” training rears its silly head. The reason the wife and children remain under the employ of the master is because….THE MASTER GAVE THE MALE SERVANT THE WIFE, IN THE FIRST PLACE!! Had you bothered reading the data I posted on this matter, you would have known that, if the master gives a female servant to his male servant for a wife, it's effectively the same effect as his giving a daughter for wife. The master has paid for the woman's food, lodging, clothes, etc.

In other words, should the male servant cough up the dough for a dowry, he gets to leave with the wife (and the kids).

However, as verse 3 indicated, which you clearly didn’t read, if the man and wife came together to serve this master, they leave together (with the kids).





In fact, these “indentured servants” had so little in the way of human rights that they could be genitally mutilated on the whims of their masters:

Genesis 17:13:
"He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised: and my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant."

Genesis 17:27:
"And all the men of his house, born in the house, and bought with money of the stranger, were circumcised with him."

Lack of reading comprehension, thy name is Luke. Did you somehow miss the terms, “He that is born in thy house” or “All the men of his house”? That means EVERY MALE, from the master, on down to the maleservant, gets circumcised. And (with regards to the Genesis verse), that happens to the grown men, simply because this is when the circumcision covenant began. Males, from that time forward, were circumcised, after they were EIGHT DAYS OLD.


But even more dishonest than any of this, is the deliberate omission by Loco and McWay of the specific terms and conditions that applied to female slaves.

Female slaves were indeed slaves for life… chattel slaves:

Exodus 21:7:
"And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do."

Try that again, boy genius. Female slaves could be married and once that happens, the term, maidservants goes bye-bye.

You'd know that, had you bothered to read the next four verses, boy genius:

Verse 8-11
If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her.


And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters. If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.


That means that someone else can marry her, and once he does, she becomes a WIFE. That ain't chattel slavery. Furthermore, he can't sell her off to another nation, which would be the very antithesis of chattel slavery (in which people can be sold, anywhere, anytime, for any reason, without their consent).


Non-Hebrew slaves were considered chattel slaves whether male or female:

Leviticus 25:44-46:
"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."

If that were the case, the women would NOT BE ABLE TO BE REDEEMED. And, you mentioned earlier (which pretty much torpedoes this argument of yours), severe injury or mistreatment VOIDS the arrangement, allowing them to go free.

Once again, that ain't chattel slavery.


My assertion that female slaves were chattel slaves subject to rape and sexual violence and legally disenfranchised of their right to their own sexual consent seems to have caused the most consternation. It is a pretty damning indictment… but I don’t understand why I am being Hectored to provide specifics on this. The Bible is replete with examples of such barbarity.

You’re being “Hectored”, because (as is often the case), your claims are inaccurate. All one has to do is see from where you’re getting such foolishness, read it for himself, and commence the dissecting, appropriately. That’s probably why you usually hide your specific references.



For example: female slaves could be raped… but only at the price of a sacrificed ram. (The female slave would be flogged, but could not be put to death because she was property):

Leviticus 19:20-22:
"And whosoever lieth carnally with a woman, that is a bondmaid, betrothed to a husband, and not at all redeemed, nor freedom given her; she shall be scourged; they shall not be put to death, because she was not free. And he shall bring his trespass offering unto the LORD, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, even a ram for a trespass offering. And the priest shall make an atonement for him with the ram of the trespass offering before the LORD for his sin which he hath done: and the sin which he hath done shall be forgiven him."

Operation FOOT-IN-MOUTH is a-go for Luke. Weren’t you just blubbering, not that long ago, about that Levite’s concubine who got assaulted and raped? I guess you conveniently forgot that, when the Levite reported what happened, the Israelite leaders demanded that the Benjamites responsible BE PUT TO DEATH (there ain’t no mention about any ram sacrifices).

Furthermore, from that particular verse, there is no mention of RAPE. Lying carnally with a woman implies that the sex is voluntary. The reason she gets flogged, INSTEAD OF KILLED (as what normally happens when betrothed women start creeping), is because she’s not married or betrothed yet. It ain’t official until the would-be redeemer actually coughs up the $$$$$$.

Verse 29 of this same chapter instructs fathers not to make prostitutes out of their daughters. In sexual purity and marital terms, the same applied for female servants.

Do not prostitute thy daughter, to cause her to be a whore; lest the land fall to whoredom, and the land become full of wickedness.



Women and children were routinely taken for chattel slaves as spoils of war:

Deuteronomy 20:14:
"But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself"

If a Hebrew man took a fancy to any female war captive, he could take her as a slave and try her out before deciding whether to keep her. It doesn’t really sound like indentured servitude if the employer has the right to rape the female staff members to decide whether he wants to keep them? Does it?

You missed the part, where he must give her a month to mourn. Then, he must MARRY her. Once that happens, she gets treated like any other wife. Non-Hebrew women, once married, became effectively HEBREWS, with all rights and privileges. Again see Ruth. She was a Moabitess. Yet, when her first husband died, she was redeemed and treated the EXACT same way that a Hebrew wife was treated, with regards to property inheiritance and care.

And, O non-comprehending one, there is no "trying her out" issue at all. He can't touch her for at least a month. And, if he wants get busy with her, HE HAS TO MARRY HER. If he divorces here after that, he gets NOTHING for casting her away. On the contrary, he has to pay for her care, especially if they have kids together. The firstborn from this dissolved marriage BECOMES HIS HEIR, when he dies.


Deuteronomy 21:10-14:
"When thou goest forth to war against thine enemies, and the Lord thy God hath delivered them into thine hands, and thou hast taken them captive, And seest among the captives a beautiful woman, and hast a desire unto her, that thou wouldest have her to thy wife; Then thou shalt bring her home to thine house; and she shall shave her head, and pare her nails; And she shall put the raiment of her captivity from off her, and shall remain in thine house, and bewail her father and her mother a full month: and after that thou shalt go in unto her, and be her husband, and she shall be thy wife.

And it shall be, if thou have no delight in her, then thou shalt let her go whither she will; but thou shalt not sell her at all for money, thou shalt not make merchandise of her, because thou hast humbled her."


…this translation of “humbled” in this sexual context is another example of a softening translation. It should be translated as “...because thou hast raped her”. As it was translated for centuries.

That’s from the KJV version. Where is this other version that supposedly translates “humbled” as “raped”? The Hebrew word for "humbled" is "anah", which means "put down, oppressed, afflicted". The word "rape" is not used, in the translation of "anah".

So, that means, boy genius, you have to go the the painful inconvenience to show that (in the ancient Hebrerw text) a word, other than "anah" was used in that text, and this other word means "raped".



In fact, female slaves had so little control over their own sexual consent that they could be handed over as sexual surrogates:

Genesis 16:1-2:
"Now Sarai Abram's wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar. And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the LORD hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai."

You screwed up the last time you tried this trick, Luke. Exactly where is it stated that Hagar did NOT consent to this agreement and was raped? If she had not wanted to do the deed, she could have simply refused and/or RUN AWAY (as she did once Sarah started mistreating her, which started from Hagar’s apparent GLOATING over the fact that she could have kids and Sarah could not).

And, as Loco indicated, Abraham MARRIED Hagar, before they did the deed and had Ishmael.



In fact, not only did female slaves not even have ownership over their own sexual consent (considered the property of their master) but their mistress had right of first refusal on any children she might have… it doesn’t sound much like “indentured servitude” when the employer can gift the employee as a sexual plaything then forcefully adopt any child she might conceive, does it?

Genesis 30:3-4:
"And she said, Behold my maid Bilhah, go in unto her; and she shall bear upon my knees, that I may also have children by her. And she gave him Bilhah her handmaid to wife: and Jacob went in unto her."

Genesis 30:9-10:
"When Leah saw that she had left bearing, she took Zilpah her maid, and gave her Jacob to wife. And Zilpah Leah's maid bare Jacob a son."


…so, in conclusion:

A non-Hebrew woman living in one of the cities destroyed by marauding Hebrew hoardes would have her husband and infant children slaughtered before her and might only be spared the same fate herself because one of the Hebrew soldiers took a fancy to her… this Hebrew soldier would then forcibly take her back to Israel as a hostage, where, having first suffered the ignominy of having her head shaved and nails clipped, she would be kept under house arrest for a month.

Once the month was up she would then be subject to an indeterminate period of rapings… nothing too severe, just the standard raping female slaves were subject to and possibly a beating if she displeased her master, but not so vicious a beating that she would lose either an eye or a tooth, and if she was beaten to death then it wouldn’t be a continuous savage beating that might kill her on the spot but possibly a beating from which she might die a couple of days later.

If she’s lucky, and her new Hebrew master is somewhat decent enough to be put off by the continuous rape on the threat of torture, then he might let her go.

Once set free she now has to somehow escape to her homeland without being captured by any of the Hebrews involved in the slave trade, if she is actually recaptured then sold as a standard slave she has no hope of ever being set free.

She is now the property of her new master and can be raped; beaten or gifted as a sexual plaything… on the threat of more savage beatings. Should she have children, her children can be taken/stolen from her and forcibly adopted by her master or mistress. 

In conclusion, your claims are utterly ridiculous and demonstratively FALSE. Nothing in those verses indicates any lack of consent by the female servants involved. In fact, as the verses clearly state (which you apparently missed, in your usual foolish haste), the master had to MARRY these women, before any children could be had. This was not some wanton raping, with reckless abandon (as what happened with black women in America).

You don’t marry “sexual playthings”, boy genius. The fact that Jacob did this means that he is on the hook for the care of these women and their children, REGARDLESS of their servant-status.



Any children not stolen in this manner will themselves be slaves for life, subject to the same beatings and sexual violence without any hope of reprieve. Male children will be forcibly circumcised in traditional Hebrew style: foreskin cut with a dull bronze blade and excess skin sucked off the penis by the priest with his mouth, despite the fact that such an operation is routinely fatal (up to 10% mortality rate) in a time before antibiotics... even more dangerous if the priest has any sort of STD or mouth infection.

All of this would be well within Hebrew Old Testament Mosaic Law.


Yep, sounds like "indentured servitude" to me... Morons.

If you keep quiet sometimes, no one will know how bone-headed your drivel can be. Circumcision was required for ALL HEBREWS MALES, period. It started with Abraham, Ishmael, and Isaac. Were any of them slaves, genius? NO!!! Jacob and Esau got circumcised, too. And, so did Jacob’s male children (those from Rachel, the wife he initially wanted; Leah, the one he was tricked into marrying; and their respective servants, who were willing pawns in a one-upmanship game, between rival sisters).

And, if that weren’t enough, Einstein, circumcision (a mere removing of foreskin) occurred, when these boys were EIGHT DAYS OLD, hardly the traumatic experience you so cluelessly make it out to be. Jacob had 12 sons. If your claims were actually true, only ONE or two would have survived circumcision.

On the contrary, per the book of Exodus, which you seem to be so eager to quote, the Hebrews multiplied GREATLY, when they were in Egypt. That flies right in the fact of the alleged “10% mortality rate” (a claim for which you apparently have nothing to support).


I would ask that those reading this thread take the time to call McWay on his bullshit when he starts his apologist bullshit:
-claiming each quotation is an example of a special case
-quoting an apologist translation that exchanges "worker" for "slave/servant"
-picking apart the grammar
-quoting an obscure saying attributed to Jebus which might possibly repeal all Old Testament slavery laws

...thanks. He needs to know he's not winning anyone over.


The Luke

You have continued in your usual fashion of utterly false claims, inserting things into texts that are not there, shooting yourself in the foot by clearly glossing over parts of Scripture, that UNDERMINE the very argument you try to make.

Worst (and most pathetically) of all, you whine like T.O. after a Cowboys loss, flinging stupid accusations, hoping that it will prop up your feeble arguments. No one is twisting your words, using “touch/feely” translations of the Bible, or any of that other nonsense you keep spewing. Your takes are weak, demonstratively false, and utterly unsupported.

That’s why it troubles you so much to actually produce references (if you can actually do that). A simple read of the facts burns your brittle claims to the ground.

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #89 on: December 08, 2008, 08:12:54 AM »
Leviticus 25:44-46:
"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."


Quote
If that were the case, the women would NOT BE ABLE TO BE REDEEMED. And, you mentioned earlier (which pretty much torpedoes this argument of yours), severe injury or mistreatment VOIDS the arrangement, allowing them to go free.

Once again, that ain't chattel slavery.

so they had some morals regarding the treatment of slaves.   Still slaves, held against their will, procured from other nations. 

You shold run for office.   ;) ;D

God's a slaver    lol

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #90 on: December 08, 2008, 08:47:18 AM »
Leviticus 25:44-46:
"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."


so they had some morals regarding the treatment of slaves.   Still slaves, held against their will, procured from other nations. 

You shold run for office.   ;) ;D

God's a slaver    lol


Procured from other nations, yes. Held against their will........NOT quite!!!

Recall that people could volunteer to indenture themselves, usually to avoid poverty. As mentioned earlier, regarding Hagar, she left after the tension between her and Sarah began to hit the boiling point. Notice again that no one was dispatched to bring her back, and we have no record of any punitive damages done to her, as a result of her fleeing. She left of her own free will; she returned of her own free will.

Severe mistreatment (i.e. major injury) voided any indebtedness. For females, marriage into the family bumped the status of the foreign female to full-fledged wife.

Neither was the hallmark of chattel slavery.

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #91 on: December 08, 2008, 08:59:54 AM »
Procured from other nations, yes. Held against their will........NOT quite!!!

Recall that people could volunteer to indenture themselves, usually to avoid poverty. As mentioned earlier, regarding Hagar, she left after the tension between her and Sarah began to hit the boiling point. Notice again that no one was dispatched to bring her back, and we have no record of any punitive damages done to her, as a result of her fleeing. She left of her own free will; she returned of her own free will.

Severe mistreatment (i.e. major injury) voided any indebtedness. For females, marriage into the family bumped the status of the foreign female to full-fledged wife.

Neither was the hallmark of chattel slavery.

People that are "bought" are not volunteering themselves and still the common word used is slavery not indentured servitude or someone who owes.

Indentured servitude is considered primitive and wrong in modern times.   People still have choices.  It may have been written in one account with Sarah, but "god" telling his followers to go and buy people liek they are property IS slavery.  no getting as around that.

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #92 on: December 08, 2008, 09:17:04 AM »
People that are "bought" are not volunteering themselves and still the common word used is slavery not indentured servitude or someone who owes.

Indentured servitude is considered primitive and wrong in modern times.   People still have choices.  It may have been written in one account with Sarah, but "god" telling his followers to go and buy people liek they are property IS slavery.  no getting as around that.

Ever heard of buying out someone’s contract? That’s done in the business world, on a regular basis.

If I have a maid, that’s works for me for, say $50,000/yr for 7 years, it means I’m paying her $350,000 for her tenure with me. If she works in my house for 3 years, I have $200,000 left to pay her. If you like my maid and she wants to work for Team Ozmo, that means you’d pay me at least 200K (assuming I sell her contract to you at cost), for her services.

The foreign-slave thing worked in similar fashion. Again, nowhere in the text does it indicate that the servants have no say in the matter; that's an assumption on your part.

People do have choices and, as stated before, many of them indentured themselves to avoid living in poverty. Among those choices would be continuing to work for the family, should the head of the family croak.

"A slave could also be freed by running away. According to Deuteronomy, a runaway slave is not to be returned to its master. He should be sheltered if he wishes or allowed to go free, and he must not be taken advantage of (Deut 23:16-17). This provision is strikingly different from the laws of slavery in the surrounding nations and is explained as due to Israel's own history of slaves. It would have the effect of turning slavery into a voluntary institution." – Raymond Westbrook, “A History of Ancient Near Eastern Law” (From the "Christian ThinkTank" link).

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #93 on: December 08, 2008, 01:57:32 PM »
Ever heard of buying out someone’s contract? That’s done in the business world, on a regular basis.

If I have a maid, that’s works for me for, say $50,000/yr for 7 years, it means I’m paying her $350,000 for her tenure with me. If she works in my house for 3 years, I have $200,000 left to pay her. If you like my maid and she wants to work for Team Ozmo, that means you’d pay me at least 200K (assuming I sell her contract to you at cost), for her services.

The foreign-slave thing worked in similar fashion. Again, nowhere in the text does it indicate that the servants have no say in the matter; that's an assumption on your part.

People do have choices and, as stated before, many of them indentured themselves to avoid living in poverty. Among those choices would be continuing to work for the family, should the head of the family croak.

"A slave could also be freed by running away. According to Deuteronomy, a runaway slave is not to be returned to its master. He should be sheltered if he wishes or allowed to go free, and he must not be taken advantage of (Deut 23:16-17). This provision is strikingly different from the laws of slavery in the surrounding nations and is explained as due to Israel's own history of slaves. It would have the effect of turning slavery into a voluntary institution." – Raymond Westbrook, “A History of Ancient Near Eastern Law” (From the "Christian ThinkTank" link).

They are not talking about any of that here.  they are not talking about buying work contracts.

Leviticus 25:44-46:
Quote
"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves.

They didn't say workers, contract workers, voluntary workers etc.  They said slaves.  If they meant otherwise they'd have said that.

Quote
You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property.

Buying "contracted workers" is never designated as property.

Quote
You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."

More designation of property.


I can appreciate your burden in this.  But you can only spin something so far before it becomes silly.

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #94 on: December 08, 2008, 02:15:04 PM »
Ozmo,


You're wasting your time... McWay can't even tell the difference between 10% mortality rate and a 10% survival rate. He's a moron.

On the contrary, per the book of Exodus, which you seem to be so eager to quote, the Hebrews multiplied GREATLY, when they were in Egypt. That flies right in the fact of the alleged “10% mortality rate” (a claim for which you apparently have nothing to support).

His claim that Old Testament slavery was a form of indentured servitude is at odds with two thousand years consensus of Western thought: theologians, linguists; archaeologists; Bible scholars. I've now shown that conclusively.

He skips over the "slaves for life" edict covering foreign war captives. That's pretty explicit.

He skips over the routine beating of slaves (only maiming is punishable).

He skips over children being bought and sold as slaves (how can a child consent to being an indentured servant?)


This all reminds me of his continuous claims that Yahweh didn't condone genocide... he wailed and wailed for explicit quotations, when they were listed for him he simply dismissed them on the grounds that:
-god is the creator and can do what he wants
-god rewards people collectively and punishes people collectively, hence the child murder
-god doesn't need to meet any moral standard
-there is nothing wrong with abusing an asymmetrical power relationship: why can't you do what you want if you are more powerful? etc

No rational person would be convinced by his apologetics... his fellow "Allah-akhbar!" fundies Loco and Colossus500 don't count (neither rational nor proper people).


The Luke

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #95 on: December 09, 2008, 05:43:36 AM »
They are not talking about any of that here.  they are not talking about buying work contracts.

Leviticus 25:44-46:
They didn't say workers, contract workers, voluntary workers etc.  They said slaves.  If they meant otherwise they'd have said that.

From whom are they buying these folks? That would be their previous employers/masters. Again, see the maid example.

Or, as mentioned awhile back and later in this post, people, foreigners and Hebrews, could sell themselves.


Buying "contracted workers" is never designated as property.

More designation of property.


I can appreciate your burden in this.  But you can only spin something so far before it becomes silly.

There's no burden in this for me. The willing as inherited property is not that much different than, say, a butler who has worked in the same family for two or three generations (i.e. Alfred to the Wayne family, to use a theatrical example). And, there's no spinning involved. Again, the question was asked as to whether or not the "slavery" of the OT was similar to chattel slavery of black people. I have shown that it is not and the reasons why it is not.

Even today, people can easily be designated as "property". Try joining the military. If you mutilate or injure yourself, via doing something stupid (especially to avoid combat), you can be charged with destruction of government property. Does that mean that you become a slave by joining the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marines? No. Hence the reason, we have what is known as an "all-volunteer" military.


Ozmo,


You're wasting your time... McWay can't even tell the difference between 10% mortality rate and a 10% survival rate. He's a moron.

His claim that Old Testament slavery was a form of indentured servitude is at odds with two thousand years consensus of Western thought: theologians, linguists; archaeologists; Bible scholars. I've now shown that conclusively.

You mean theologians, archaeologists, and Bible scholars, such as Raymond Westbrook, Louis Feldman, or any of the others mentioned here?

http://www.christian-thinktank.com/bookabs.html#HI:HANEL


And, of course, you can't support your claims about the alleged dangers of circumcision. Heck, it didn't dawn on you that circumcision was required for ALL MALES in Israel, regardless of their status (and that in most cases, that was done AT INFANCY, hardly the traumatic and deadly experience you tried to make it).


He skips over the "slaves for life" edict covering foreign war captives. That's pretty explicit.

Ummm....genius. I not only addressed that, but I've shown that such was NOT the case.

From the "Other references to 'slavery-like' situations in the Mosaic law: The 'Foreign slave" section of the CTT link:

The second case is that of foreign slaves within Israel (Lev 25.44f):

Because the Israelites are my servants, whom I brought out of Egypt, they must not be sold as slaves. 43 Do not rule over them ruthlessly, but fear your God. 44 "`Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life

God orders the Israelites to make a distinction between the Hebrew servants and the those of foreign nations. They were:

·        Allowed to 'buy' (not take!) slaves from foreign nations around them [Note: these would NOT include the Canaanites, but would be from remote nations. This would make the incidence level of this extremely small, except in the case of royalty or the ruling class. In those days, rulers would often have slaves with special skills, such as writing, teaching, translation, but the lives of these 'slaves' would not be representative of the common "western" slavery under discussion.]



·        The temporary resident situation would look more like the Hebrew institution (since the alien would be 'selling himself' as in that case). The main difference would be the absence of the "timed-release" freedom clauses, but the slave-for-life-for-love situation may have been what is behind the 'you CAN make them slaves for life' (implying that it was not automatic.).
 

·        The temporary resident already performed more mundane tasks for the people, for example wood and water services (cf. Deut 29.11: the aliens living in your camps who chop your wood and carry your water. ), in exchange for escape from Egypt or from troubles abroad. But these aliens were not confined to some 'lower class' in the Israelite assembly, since it is obvious that they could rise to affluence and actually BUY Hebrew servants as well:

"`If an alien or a temporary resident among you becomes rich and one of your countrymen becomes poor and sells himself to the alien living among you or to a member of the alien's clan, 48 he retains the right of redemption after he has sold himself. (Deut 25.47)

As such, it looks more like the Hebrew institution than the 'western' version.


If foreigners can become rich, obviously they aren't MANDATED to be slaves for life. In fact, this Deut. verse shows a scenario in which a HEBREW can SELL HIMSELF to a foreign master. That would not happen if foreigners were designated as lifetime chattel.

Plus, you conveniently forgot about the Hagar example. Was she a foreigner? YES!! Was she enslaved for life? NO!! Was she punished for leaving Sarah and Abraham? NO!!!

And, of course, you gloss over the fact that, per the very verses you just listed, men could leave the homes of their masters WITH THEIR FAMILIES. Foreign women could marry their masters, getting the full wife status of Hebrew women (i.e. Ruth), or they can marry someone else with the same thing occuring.




He skips over the routine beating of slaves (only maiming is punishable).

Wrong again, Luke!!!

"Although slaves were viewed as the property of heads of households, the latter were not free to brutalize or abuse even non-Israelite members of the household. On the contrary, explicit prohibitions of the oppression/exploitation of slaves appear repeatedly in the Mosaic legislation.  In two most remarkable texts, Leviticus 19:34 and Deuteronomy 10:19, Yahweh charges all Israelites to love ('aheb) aliens (gerim) who reside in their midst, that is, the foreign members of their households, like they do themselves and to treat these outsiders with the same respect they show their ethnic countrymen. Like Exodus 22:20 (Eng. 21), in both texts Israel's memory of her own experience as slaves in Egypt should have provided motivation for compassionate treatment of her slaves. But Deuteronomy 10:18 adds that the Israelites were to look to Yahweh himself as the paradigm for treating the economically and socially vulnerable persons in their communities." - Ken Campbell, "Marriage and Family in the Biblical World".

This "routine beating" spiel is also one that you cannot support. If such were the case, these slaves would be leaving on a regular basis, which according to Biblical texts, they are allowed to do.

Deut. 23:15

If a slave has taken refuge with you, do not hand him over to his master. 16 Let him live among you wherever he likes and in whatever town he chooses. Do not oppress him.

As I mentioned to Ozmo, earlier:

"A slave could also be freed by running away. According to Deuteronomy, a runaway slave is not to be returned to its master. He should be sheltered if he wishes or allowed to go free, and he must not be taken advantage of (Deut 23:16-17). This provision is strikingly different from the laws of slavery in the surrounding nations and is explained as due to Israel's own history of slaves. It would have the effect of turning slavery into a voluntary institution." - Raymond Westbrook, “A History of Ancient Near Eastern Law”



He skips over children being bought and sold as slaves (how can a child consent to being an indentured servant?)

Is the child planning to go on strike and NOT stay with his mother and father? Again, the father can leave with his family (Hebrew or foreigner). Furthermore,

And, while you're on the subject of skipping over stuff, you might want to get your own house in order by:

- Producing the alleged text Deut 21. that claims uses a word other than "anah" (humbled), to show that a foreign female was "raped".
- Female slaves were chattel slaves for life

This all reminds me of his continuous claims that Yahweh didn't condone genocide... he wailed and wailed for explicit quotations, when they were listed for him he simply dismissed them on the grounds that:
-god is the creator and can do what he wants
-god rewards people collectively and punishes people collectively, hence the child murder
-god doesn't need to meet any moral standard
-there is nothing wrong with abusing an asymmetrical power relationship: why can't you do what you want if you are more powerful? etc

No rational person would be convinced by his apologetics... his fellow "Allah-akhbar!" fundies Loco and Colossus500 don't count (neither rational nor proper people).


The Luke

Excuse me!!!  I've discussed at length how and why God brought judgment on certain people (Ozmo can tell you that, firsthand). I never "wailed" for explicit quotations" on that particular issue, boy genius. On the other hand, regarding the issues about which I HAVE ASKED you to provide references to support your claims, you've FAILED to produce those time and time again.

As far as moral standards go, what I've said is that God is the one who makes the standards, not man. Therefore, your screwball claim of God not needing to meet any moral standard rings hollow.

Your quit about asymmetrical power is equally as foolish. If the Israelites could do whatever they wanted, they would have possessed the very thing you keep falsely and bone-headedly claimed they did: chattel slaves. Instead, you see NUMEROUS references in the OT that Israel was to treat their foreigners kindly, as He constantly reminded His people of how badly they were treated in Egypt.

Lev 19:33,34

And if a stranger sojourn with thee in your land, ye shall not vex him. But the stranger that dwelleth with you shall be unto you as one born among you, and thou shalt love him as thyself; for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt: I am the LORD your God.


Not only was abuse NOT tolerated, but the Biblical texts (including those which you quoted, ultimately undermining your own takes) states what the penalties are for such abuse: Stiff fines, release of servants without compensation, and (in extreme cases) DEATH.

If Israel could do whatever they wanted, there would have been no clauses that set foreign servants free, no clauses that allowed foreigners to get rich and have Hebrews work for them in Israel, no clauses that allowed foreign women to be have identical marital status as Hebrew women did, etc.

Your blathering about rationality, while making silly statements and reading claims into Bible verses that simply are not there, makes for good comedy, as does your standard for who’s proper and who’s not.

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #96 on: December 09, 2008, 06:49:48 AM »
Okay guys, sorry this is a little late, but I’ve been really busy lately… and schooling a bunch of fundies isn’t that high on my list of priorities. But I promised I would… and so I shall…


The topic under discussion was whether the Bible condones slavery… I have been arguing that it does, which I had thought was an opinion beyond reproach or discussion; as the Bible quite explicitly DOES condone slavery. Even Jesus never spoke out against the practice of slavery.

No.  Your claim is that Hebrew men in the Bible raped their female slaves and that God was okay with this.  You posted this long thread and yet you still fail to support your bold claim.

By the way, not speaking against slavery does not automatically condone it.  The Bible does not condemn slavery in general, but neither does the Bible promote or condone slavery.  The Bible however does condemn certain types of slavery and it also condemns the mistreatment of slaves.

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What I hadn’t expected were the underhanded tactics employed by Loco and McWay.
I didn’t think believing Christians would stoop so low as selective quotations and touch-feely new translations… so I’m afraid I’ll have actually go to trouble of making sourced and referenced quotes to back my position.

What's with the personal attacks and false accusations now?  Are you losing it?  You are the one who stoop so low.  I have already told you:

Get your facts straight, young Skywalker!

I'm not an American.

I read the Bible daily, sometimes in one English translation, some times in another English translation, some times in one Spanish translation and some times in another Spanish translation.  They all say the same thing, just in different languages.

I tend to quote from the New International Version(NIV) because it is a modern English translation which is easier to read and understand by modern English speaking people than the old King James English is.  There is nothing wrong with that.

The NIV is a completely new translation of the Bible made by 100 scholars working directly from the best available Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek texts. 

The core translation group consisted of fifteen Biblical scholars. The translation took ten years and involved a team up to 100 people from the USA, Canada, the United Kingdom, Australia, New Zealand, and South Africa. The range of those participating included over twenty different denominations such as Baptists, Methodists, Lutherans, Anglicans, Assemblies of God, Brethren, Christian Reformed, Church of Christ, Evangelical Free, Mennonites, Nazarenes, Presbyterians, Wesleyan and more. That they were from so many different denominations helped to safeguard the translation from sectarian bias.


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Does the Bible condone slavery?
Well, slaves are routinely referred to in lists of property throughout the Old Testament, that might give us a hint of how slaves were regarded… we should ask ourselves, would the “indentured servants” McWay insists Old Testament slaves actually were be regarded as property. Surely only chattel slaves were considered such:

Exodus 20:17:
"Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour’s house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbors wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor any thing that is thy neighbours."

Deuteronomy 5:21:
"Neither shalt thou desire thy neighbour’s wife, neither shalt thou covet thy neighbour’s house, his field, or his manservant, or his maidservant, his ox, or his ass, or any thing that is thy neighbours.”


The Luke,

Did you even bother to read your own translation of your own Bible?  None of the verses you posted support your claim.  They actually prove you wrong.

Slavery dates back to beyond recorded history, and Jewish Law in the Bible regarding indenture slavery was actually a huge improvement on the treatment of slaves and provided for ways in which slaves could gain their freedom.  The Bible also condemns certain types of slavery.  No need for me to quote Bible verses.  I'll just use yours.

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Surely the employer of an indentured servant wouldn’t be permitted by holy edict to physically beat his slaves?
Exodus 21:26-27:
"And if a man smite the eye of his servant, or the eye of his maid, that it perish; he shall let him go free for his eye's sake. And if he smite out his manservant's tooth, or his maidservant's tooth; he shall let him go free for his tooth's sake."

…well, seemingly a slave owner was permitted to beat his slaves so long as he didn’t either knock out their teeth or blind them in either eye. Doesn’t sound like indentured servitude to me, any beating short of a maiming is considered acceptable?

A slave who suffers permanent injury as a result of the master's beating is released from servitude. 

Yeah, sounds just like chattel slavery.   ::) 

These verses prove you wrong.

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But surely if these were indeed chattel slaves there would be evidence of slavemasters having the right to put their slaves to death?
Would laws detailing the circumstances of such punishment beatings be considered evidence of this?
Exodus 21:20-21:
"And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he die under his hand; he shall be surely punished. Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished: for they are his property."

…so you can beat your slaves as severely as you like, on condition that you don’t batter them to death on the spot.

If you beat your slave so badly that he dies a couple of days after the beating, then you go “unpunished”. What kind of rationale could explain this? Perhaps the fact that non-Hebrew slaves were considered chattel slaves and explicitly, legally a form of property (ie: no proper human rights).

How else can someone not be punished for beating someone to death because “they are his property”.

In other words, in the Bible the master might have owned the slave, but unlike in chattel slavery, he did not own the slave's life.  If a master killed his slave, the master was surely punished.  You do not see that in chattel slavery.

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What about the terms of servitude?
McWay insists Old Testament slaves were indeed a form of "indentured servant" and were routinely set free with severance pay in the seventh year. This is true for certain Hebrew slaves (male Hebrew slaves):
Deuteronomy 15:12-18:
"And if thy brother, an Hebrew man, or an Hebrew woman, be sold unto thee, and serve thee six years; then in the seventh year thou shalt let him go free from thee. And when thou sendest him out free from thee, thou shalt not let him go away empty: Thou shalt furnish him liberally out of thy flock, and out of thy floor, and out of thy winepress: of that wherewith the Lord thy God hath blessed thee thou shalt give unto him."

But to extend such terms to describe ALL Old Testament slaves (as McWay does) is intellectually dishonest… for example, a slaves wife was considered the property of the slavemaster. But even more sinisterly, the infant children of such a freed slave were also considered the property of the slave master. Can a child be an “indentured servant”?

Exodus 21:1-4:
"If thou buy a Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing. If he came in by himself, he shall go out by himself: if he were married, then his wife shall go out with him. If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself."

Consider that. What type of employer demands that any children you bear while in their employ become the property of the employer… again, sounds like chattel slavery to me.

In fact, these “indentured servants” had so little in the way of human rights that they could be genitally mutilated on the whims of their masters:

Genesis 17:13:
"He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised: and my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant."

Genesis 17:27:
"And all the men of his house, born in the house, and bought with money of the stranger, were circumcised with him."

MCWAY already enlightened you on circumcision laws in the Bible.  This has nothing to do with slavery and actually, by circumcising their male slaves, the Israelites showed equality since all Israelite males were circumcised too, including their own children.

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But even more dishonest than any of this, is the deliberate omission by Loco and McWay of the specific terms and conditions that applied to female slaves.

Female slaves were indeed slaves for life… chattel slaves:

Exodus 21:7:
"And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do."

Obviously, you are the only one being dishonest here.  You purposely left out the rest of the above passage:

Exodus 21:7-9 (New International Version)
"If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as menservants do. 8 If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. 9 If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter."

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Non-Hebrew slaves were considered chattel slaves whether male or female:
Leviticus 25:44-46:
"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."

My assertion that female slaves were chattel slaves subject to rape and sexual violence and legally disenfranchised of their right to their own sexual consent seems to have caused the most consternation. It is a pretty damning indictment… but I don’t understand why I am being Hectored to provide specifics on this. The Bible is replete with examples of such barbarity.

Your assertion has been and continues to be wrong and dishonest.  Such a large post with nothing to back this up.  If "The Bible is replete with examples of such barbarity", then why are you unable to provide a single example of this?

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For example: female slaves could be raped… but only at the price of a sacrificed ram. (The female slave would be flogged, but could not be put to death because she was property):
Leviticus 19:20-22:
"And whosoever lieth carnally with a woman, that is a bondmaid, betrothed to a husband, and not at all redeemed, nor freedom given her; she shall be scourged; they shall not be put to death, because she was not free. And he shall bring his trespass offering unto the LORD, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, even a ram for a trespass offering. And the priest shall make an atonement for him with the ram of the trespass offering before the LORD for his sin which he hath done: and the sin which he hath done shall be forgiven him."

Women and children were routinely taken for chattel slaves as spoils of war:

Deuteronomy 20:14:
"But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself"

If a Hebrew man took a fancy to any female war captive, he could take her as a slave and try her out before deciding whether to keep her. It doesn’t really sound like indentured servitude if the employer has the right to rape the female staff members to decide whether he wants to keep them? Does it?
 
Deuteronomy 21:10-14:
"When thou goest forth to war against thine enemies, and the Lord thy God hath delivered them into thine hands, and thou hast taken them captive, And seest among the captives a beautiful woman, and hast a desire unto her, that thou wouldest have her to thy wife; Then thou shalt bring her home to thine house; and she shall shave her head, and pare her nails; And she shall put the raiment of her captivity from off her, and shall remain in thine house, and bewail her father and her mother a full month: and after that thou shalt go in unto her, and be her husband, and she shall be thy wife.

And it shall be, if thou have no delight in her, then thou shalt let her go whither she will; but thou shalt not sell her at all for money, thou shalt not make merchandise of her, because thou hast humbled her."

…this translation of “humbled” in this sexual context is another example of a softening translation. It should be translated as “...because thou hast raped her”. As it was translated for centuries.



In fact, female slaves had so little control over their own sexual consent that they could be handed over as sexual surrogates:

Genesis 16:1-2:
"Now Sarai Abram's wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar. And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the LORD hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai."

In fact, not only did female slaves not even have ownership over their own sexual consent (considered the property of their master) but their mistress had right of first refusal on any children she might have… it doesn’t sound much like “indentured servitude” when the employer can gift the employee as a sexual plaything then forcefully adopt any child she might conceive, does it?

Genesis 30:3-4:
"And she said, Behold my maid Bilhah, go in unto her; and she shall bear upon my knees, that I may also have children by her. And she gave him Bilhah her handmaid to wife: and Jacob went in unto her."

Genesis 30:9-10:
"When Leah saw that she had left bearing, she took Zilpah her maid, and gave her Jacob to wife. And Zilpah Leah's maid bare Jacob a son."


…so, in conclusion:

A non-Hebrew woman living in one of the cities destroyed by marauding Hebrew hoardes would have her husband and infant children slaughtered before her and might only be spared the same fate herself because one of the Hebrew soldiers took a fancy to her… this Hebrew soldier would then forcibly take her back to Israel as a hostage, where, having first suffered the ignominy of having her head shaved and nails clipped, she would be kept under house arrest for a month.

Once the month was up she would then be subject to an indeterminate period of rapings… nothing too severe, just the standard raping female slaves were subject to and possibly a beating if she displeased her master, but not so vicious a beating that she would lose either an eye or a tooth, and if she was beaten to death then it wouldn’t be a continuous savage beating that might kill her on the spot but possibly a beating from which she might die a couple of days later.

If she’s lucky, and her new Hebrew master is somewhat decent enough to be put off by the continuous rape on the threat of torture, then he might let her go.

Once set free she now has to somehow escape to her homeland without being captured by any of the Hebrews involved in the slave trade, if she is actually recaptured then sold as a standard slave she has no hope of ever being set free.

She is now the property of her new master and can be raped; beaten or gifted as a sexual plaything… on the threat of more savage beatings. Should she have children, her children can be taken/stolen from her and forcibly adopted by her master or mistress.

Any children not stolen in this manner will themselves be slaves for life, subject to the same beatings and sexual violence without any hope of reprieve. Male children will be forcibly circumcised in traditional Hebrew style: foreskin cut with a dull bronze blade and excess skin sucked off the penis by the priest with his mouth, despite the fact that such an operation is routinely fatal (up to 10% mortality rate) in a time before antibiotics... even more dangerous if the priest has any sort of STD or mouth infection.

The Luke,
How can you spew so much ignorance after quoting the Bible verses yourself?  Those verses clearly prove that a Hebrew male was not allowed to have sex with his slave without first marrying her, which means that her status was elevated from that of a slave to that of a wife, with all the rights and privileges of an Israelite wife.

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All of this would be well within Hebrew Old Testament Mosaic Law.

Yep, sounds like "indentured servitude" to me... Morons.


I would ask that those reading this thread take the time to call McWay on his bullshit when he starts his apologist bullshit:
-claiming each quotation is an example of a special case
-quoting an apologist translation that exchanges "worker" for "slave/servant"
-picking apart the grammar
-quoting an obscure saying attributed to Jebus which might possibly repeal all Old Testament slavery laws

...thanks. He needs to know he's not winning anyone over.

The Luke

No, you have sunk to a new low.  You are either ignorant or dishonest.  From this post, it seems to me that you are a little bit of both.  Go back and read the very Bible verses that you posted.  They actually contradict your claims.   

And you still owe me a couple of replies on the thread "Is there anything original in the Jesus story?"

I'm waiting.  Your workouts are way too long.

The Luke

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #97 on: December 09, 2008, 07:45:17 AM »
I read a lot of self-serving bullshit here... and most of it is of an evasive nature.

McWay and Loco,

Rather than correct all the silly mistakes you guys make (confusing mortality and survival rates for example), perhaps you could correct my misreading of this passage:

Exodus 21:20-21:
"And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he die under his hand; he shall be surely punished. Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished: for they are his property."



...am I right in thinking, seeing as the above verse expressly says so, that if a slavemaster beats his slave with a stick so severely that the slave dies THREE days after the beating, that the slavemaster goes UNPUNISHED because he had the right to beat the slave... because the slave is his property... and the fact that the slave wasn't killed on the spot proves the masters restraint (ie: no intent to maim the slave thereby setting the slave free), so again he goes unpunished.

Isn't that a proper reading?


The Luke

MCWAY

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #98 on: December 09, 2008, 07:55:57 AM »
No.  Your claim is that Hebrew men in the Bible raped their female slaves and that God was okay with this.  You posted this long thread and yet you still fail to support your bold claim.



Did you even bother to read your own translation of your own Bible?  None of the verses you posted support your claim.  They actually prove you wrong.

AMEN!!!  Remember that Levite's concubine. The men that raped her were marked for DEATH. The Israelites demanded that they be handed for EXECUTION.


Get your facts straight, young Skywalker!

I'm not an American.

I read the Bible daily, sometimes in one English translation, some times in another English translation, some times in one Spanish translation and some times in another Spanish translation.  They all say the same thing, just in different languages.

I tend to quote from the New International Version(NIV) because it is a modern English translation which is easier to read and understand by modern English speaking people than the old King James English is.  There is nothing wrong with that.

The NIV is a completely new translation of the Bible made by 100 scholars working directly from the best available Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek texts.  

The core translation group consisted of fifteen Biblical scholars. The translation took ten years and involved a team up to 100 people from the USA, Canada, the United Kingdom, Australia, New Zealand, and South Africa. The range of those participating included over twenty different denominations such as Baptists, Methodists, Lutherans, Anglicans, Assemblies of God, Brethren, Christian Reformed, Church of Christ, Evangelical Free, Mennonites, Nazarenes, Presbyterians, Wesleyan and more. That they were from so many different denominations helped to safeguard the translation from sectarian bias.

It doesn't matter whether you're an American or not, or what is your native tongue. Luke's screwball claims aren't valid in any language. And, no matter what version of the Bible you use (I prefer the NASB, myself), what Scripture says and what Luke claims it says are as different as night and day.


A slave who suffers permanent injury as a result of the master's beating is released from servitude. 

Yeah, sounds just like chattel slavery.   ::) 

In short, the abusive master is not only minus the services of his servant (Hebrew or otherwise), but he just cost himself a ton of money. Using the maid example from my response to Ozmo, if I did something stupid and mistreated my maid, I would no longer have a housekeeper PLUS I'd be out several hundred thousand dollars.

These verses prove you wrong.


In other words, in the Bible the master might have owned the slave, but unlike in chattel slavery, he did not own the slave's life.  If a master killed his slave, the master was surely punished.  You do not see that in chattel slavery.

And, like Hagar, the foreign slave had the right to leave, due to mistreatment.



The Luke,
How can you spew so much ignorance after quoting the Bible verses yourself?  Those verses clearly prove that a Hebrew male was not allowed to have sex with his slave without first marrying her, which means that her status was elevated from that of a slave to that of a wife, with all the rights and privileges of an Israelite wife.

To top it all off, if the master tried to sell off a repeatedly-raped servant girl, he'd get pennies on the dollar (or shekel), because few, if any, men would pay for a "used" bride. To get top coin, the girl had to be a VIRGIN.


No, you have sunk to a new low.  You are either ignorant or dishonest.  From this post, it seems to me that you are a little bit of both.  Go back and read the very Bible verses that you posted.  They actually contradict your claims.   

And you still owe me a couple of replies on the thread "Is there anything original in the Jesus story?"

Take a number!!


I'm waiting.  Your workouts are way too long.



 ;D

loco

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Re: Does the Bible condone slavery?
« Reply #99 on: December 09, 2008, 08:16:55 AM »
What?  That's it?  The Luke, are you even going to address my response to your long, useless post?  Talk about evasive nature.   ::)

I read a lot of self-serving bullshit here... and most of it is of an evasive nature.

McWay and Loco,

Rather than correct all the silly mistakes you guys make (confusing mortality and survival rates for example), perhaps you could correct my misreading of this passage:

Exodus 21:20-21:
"And if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he die under his hand; he shall be surely punished. Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished: for they are his property."


...am I right in thinking, seeing as the above verse expressly says so, that if a slavemaster beats his slave with a stick so severely that the slave dies THREE days after the beating, that the slavemaster goes UNPUNISHED because he had the right to beat the slave... because the slave is his property... and the fact that the slave wasn't killed on the spot proves the masters restraint (ie: no intent to maim the slave thereby setting the slave free), so again he goes unpunished.

Isn't that a proper reading?


The Luke

Corporal punishment was common in those days and were not limited to slaves.  A free man could get a beating too.

Though a slave was his/her master's property temporarily, the slave's body was not the master's property. The master was not allowed to injure the slave because a slave who suffers permanent injury as a result of the master's beating is released from servitude.  Likewise, the master was not allowed to have sex with his slave without first marrying her, which means that her status was elevated from that of a slave to that of a wife, with all the rights and privileges of an Israelite wife. 

The slave's life was not the master's property either because if the master killed his slave, the master was surely punished.

You do not see the above in chattel slavery.

Now, are you going to address my response to your post or are you going to continue to avoid it?